Re: Antw: Re: [wifdiscussion] Is a 42 Barb viable or a lost cause?
- In the situation you described in your earlier email,
I think you are in good shape. CW is weak (helps
mitigate the fact you haven't closed the Med), China
down to one city -- not at all a bad position for the
Axis going into '42. Maybe you don't get to the
Urals, but the Allies will also have less time on the
--- DarkmanXX <darkmanxx@...> wrote:
> We play with this interpretation.
> Any opinions about a '42 Barb?
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- 42 barb can be very good for one side. :-)
From: DarkmanXX [mailto:darkmanxx@...]
Sent: Wednesday, March 02, 2005 10:05 AM
Subject: Antw: Re: [wifdiscussion] Is a 42 Barb viable or a lost cause?
We play with this interpretation.
Any opinions about a '42 Barb?
--- In firstname.lastname@example.org, craftybstd@a... wrote:
> In a message dated 3/2/2005 4:58:45 AM Eastern Standard
Time, "Herbert Gratz" <Herbert.Gratz@o...> writes:
> >The interesting thing is here how did this treaty come about?
> >Unless you play a houserule such a treaty can only be made after
> >surrenering in a war. And, no, there is no pre-game treaty other
> >plain one without conditions between JP and RU either. At least, I
> >couldn't find this anywhere and I've looked 'cause I wanted to
> >with the Russkies myself.
> Actually, the rules are silent on the issue. They don't state
whether neutrality pacts can have additional terms or not. Most
people (including, I believe, the designer) play that trade
agrrements can be made when establishing a neutrality pact. Whether
that is a "house rule" or not depends upon your interpretation. The
rules don't say that you can, and don't say that you can't. They
do, however, say that you can come to peace under whatever terms are
agreeable, or words to that effect. That could imply that such
agreements are available whever a neutrality pact is created.
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