Constitutionality of the Summons
- Has anyone ever questioned the Constitutionality of the Summons that
is issued by the court without probable cause? What law gives the
court the RIGHT to summon without probable cause? I dont want to
discuss my case specifically because my case proves a systematic
court corruption but portions of my evidence lead to probable cause.
How can the court summon ANY American citizen without at the minimum
fact check a plaintiff's alegations?
For instance, a girl who has a child petitions the court to summon
the guy she says is the daddy. The alleged baby daddy now must come
down and file an answer and then be forced to a DNA test. If this
man is not the father, his constitutional rights have been violated.
If he is the father, the court has co earsed his answer by forcing
him to simply show up. Constitutionally a woman would have a right
to petition the court if she has physical evidence that she had sex
with a specific person like pictures. Having a child just proves
that she had sex with someone not someone specific.
Another instance, a debt collector makes a claim that a person owes
money for a past credit card. The court encourages the defendant to
settle before asking the debt collector if they have a signed
contract. Debt collectors dont keep IDs of the people that they
sue. When the court forces you to answer, the court is co earsing
the defendant to identify themselves to the debt collector. If a
plaintiff cant identify a defendant, how is it constitutional to
issue a summons?