6971The term "revenue law"
- Nov 15, 2004Angela --
In light of no less than 5 US Supreme Court cases and no less than two
Congressional references, all acknowledging that the so-called income tax is
an indirect excise tax, why do you say "No" to the question? Other than the
fact that Irwin Schiff has erroneously referred to the so-called income tax
a direct tax for at least 14 years, and went to jail many times because of
his views, that is...
Yours in freedom,
" In the Supreme Court case of U.S. v. Hill, 123 US 681 the Supreme
"The term `revenue law' when used in connection with the jurisdiction
of the courts of the United States, means a law which is "directly
traceable" to the power granted to Congress by 8, Art. I of the
Constitution, `to lay and collect taxes duties, imposts, and
Is the income tax as now imposed and collected "directly traceable"
to any power granted to Congress by Article 1 of Section 8 of the
The answer to that is "No" - which means federal courts never had
jurisdiction (on this and other grounds) to prosecute anybody in
connection with alleged income tax crimes. Which means that all
criminal trials over the last 50 years involving income taxes - and
also civil lawsuits brought by the government ? HAVE ALL BEEN ILLEGAL!
See my new page listing over 70 court decisions re the income tax
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