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Franciscus Lucas Brugensis II

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  • ph.maertens
    Dear all, For those interested, this weekend I put the second part of a paper consecrated to the text-critical work of Franciscus Lucas Brugensis on my page (
    Message 1 of 8 , Mar 31, 2013
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      Dear all,

       

      For those interested, this weekend I put the second part of a paper consecrated to the text-critical work of Franciscus Lucas Brugensis on my page (http://independent.academia.edu/PhilipMaertens). As promised, this time I had a closer look at the way Franciscus handles the targumic tradition. Please do not hesitate to send your remarks, questions, corrections.

       

      Philip Maertens

       

      http://independent.academia.edu/PhilipMaertens

       

    • Danger
      Dear Colleagues, I am writing a paper for eventual publication (hopefully), but I need to know the correct term for the literary phenomenon I am describing in
      Message 2 of 8 , Apr 2, 2013
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        Dear Colleagues,

        I am writing a paper for eventual publication (hopefully), but I need to know the correct term for the literary phenomenon I am describing in the Hebrew Scriptures.

        The concept I am describing is when the same lexical root is repeated in a sentence to provide emphasis.

        For example, note the repetition of QCP in Zechariah 1:2 - "The L-rd was angry with anger" (i.e., the L-rd was very angry). In this instance, the lexical root has the same basic meaning in both occurrences.

        Many commentators incorrectly call this "paranomasia" (or "paronomasia"), which is when a single lexical root is used with different meanings in the same text. (An example would be the use of GENNAO ANOTHEN in John 4, where Jesus is apparently using the expression to mean "born from above," while Nicodemus misunderstands him to mean "born again.")

        In other words, paranomasia is a pun. However, I need the correct term for the use of a repeated lexical root with the SAME meaning, not a word play.

        For an example in Greek, see the expression "PARANGELIA PARENGEILAMEN" IN Acts 5:28 - "We STRICTLY commanded." I suspect that the repetition of the same lexical root for emphasis here reflects Semitic usage. In other words, the author of Acts may be translating this expression directly from the Aramaic or Hebrew injunction issued by the Sanhedrin in this account.

        What is the correct label for this phenomenon in Hebrew literature?

        Sincerely,

        Christopher Lovelace
      • robkashow
        Dear Chris, Cognitive accusative. Best, Rob 215-813-6065 Robert.Kashow@yale.edu
        Message 3 of 8 , Apr 2, 2013
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          Dear Chris,

          Cognitive accusative.

          Best,

          Rob
          215-813-6065
          Robert.Kashow@...


          --- In textualcriticism@yahoogroups.com, "Danger" <sigebryht@...> wrote:
          >
          > Dear Colleagues,
          >
          > I am writing a paper for eventual publication (hopefully), but I need to know the correct term for the literary phenomenon I am describing in the Hebrew Scriptures.
          >
          > The concept I am describing is when the same lexical root is repeated in a sentence to provide emphasis.
          >
          > For example, note the repetition of QCP in Zechariah 1:2 - "The L-rd was angry with anger" (i.e., the L-rd was very angry). In this instance, the lexical root has the same basic meaning in both occurrences.
          >
          > Many commentators incorrectly call this "paranomasia" (or "paronomasia"), which is when a single lexical root is used with different meanings in the same text. (An example would be the use of GENNAO ANOTHEN in John 4, where Jesus is apparently using the expression to mean "born from above," while Nicodemus misunderstands him to mean "born again.")
          >
          > In other words, paranomasia is a pun. However, I need the correct term for the use of a repeated lexical root with the SAME meaning, not a word play.
          >
          > For an example in Greek, see the expression "PARANGELIA PARENGEILAMEN" IN Acts 5:28 - "We STRICTLY commanded." I suspect that the repetition of the same lexical root for emphasis here reflects Semitic usage. In other words, the author of Acts may be translating this expression directly from the Aramaic or Hebrew injunction issued by the Sanhedrin in this account.
          >
          > What is the correct label for this phenomenon in Hebrew literature?
          >
          > Sincerely,
          >
          > Christopher Lovelace
          >
        • Rob Kashow
          Pardon, *cognate* accusative Sent from my iPhone
          Message 4 of 8 , Apr 2, 2013
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            Pardon, *cognate* accusative

            Sent from my iPhone

            On Apr 2, 2013, at 12:14 PM, "robkashow" <robkashow@...> wrote:

             

            Dear Chris,

            Cognitive accusative.

            Best,

            Rob
            215-813-6065
            Robert.Kashow@...

            --- In textualcriticism@yahoogroups.com, "Danger" <sigebryht@...> wrote:
            >
            > Dear Colleagues,
            >
            > I am writing a paper for eventual publication (hopefully), but I need to know the correct term for the literary phenomenon I am describing in the Hebrew Scriptures.
            >
            > The concept I am describing is when the same lexical root is repeated in a sentence to provide emphasis.
            >
            > For example, note the repetition of QCP in Zechariah 1:2 - "The L-rd was angry with anger" (i.e., the L-rd was very angry). In this instance, the lexical root has the same basic meaning in both occurrences.
            >
            > Many commentators incorrectly call this "paranomasia" (or "paronomasia"), which is when a single lexical root is used with different meanings in the same text. (An example would be the use of GENNAO ANOTHEN in John 4, where Jesus is apparently using the expression to mean "born from above," while Nicodemus misunderstands him to mean "born again.")
            >
            > In other words, paranomasia is a pun. However, I need the correct term for the use of a repeated lexical root with the SAME meaning, not a word play.
            >
            > For an example in Greek, see the expression "PARANGELIA PARENGEILAMEN" IN Acts 5:28 - "We STRICTLY commanded." I suspect that the repetition of the same lexical root for emphasis here reflects Semitic usage. In other words, the author of Acts may be translating this expression directly from the Aramaic or Hebrew injunction issued by the Sanhedrin in this account.
            >
            > What is the correct label for this phenomenon in Hebrew literature?
            >
            > Sincerely,
            >
            > Christopher Lovelace
            >

          • Frank Polak
            Beter still: figura etymologica, Frank Polak Tel Aviv University
            Message 5 of 8 , Apr 2, 2013
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              Beter still: figura etymologica,

              Frank Polak
              Tel Aviv University

              On Apr 2, 2013, at 7:14 PM, robkashow wrote:

               

              Dear Chris,

              Cognitive accusative.

              Best,

              Rob
              215-813-6065
              Robert.Kashow@...

              --- In textualcriticism@yahoogroups.com, "Danger" <sigebryht@...> wrote:
              >
              > Dear Colleagues,
              >
              > I am writing a paper for eventual publication (hopefully), but I need to know the correct term for the literary phenomenon I am describing in the Hebrew Scriptures.
              >
              > The concept I am describing is when the same lexical root is repeated in a sentence to provide emphasis.
              >
              > For example, note the repetition of QCP in Zechariah 1:2 - "The L-rd was angry with anger" (i.e., the L-rd was very angry). In this instance, the lexical root has the same basic meaning in both occurrences.
              >
              > Many commentators incorrectly call this "paranomasia" (or "paronomasia"), which is when a single lexical root is used with different meanings in the same text. (An example would be the use of GENNAO ANOTHEN in John 4, where Jesus is apparently using the expression to mean "born from above," while Nicodemus misunderstands him to mean "born again.")
              >
              > In other words, paranomasia is a pun. However, I need the correct term for the use of a repeated lexical root with the SAME meaning, not a word play.
              >
              > For an example in Greek, see the expression "PARANGELIA PARENGEILAMEN" IN Acts 5:28 - "We STRICTLY commanded." I suspect that the repetition of the same lexical root for emphasis here reflects Semitic usage. In other words, the author of Acts may be translating this expression directly from the Aramaic or Hebrew injunction issued by the Sanhedrin in this account.
              >
              > What is the correct label for this phenomenon in Hebrew literature?
              >
              > Sincerely,
              >
              > Christopher Lovelace
              >


            • yennifmit
              Hi Christopher, ... There are different constructions that may be relevant. In all there is the use of cognate forms. Zech 1:2 in Christopher s email is an
              Message 6 of 8 , Apr 3, 2013
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                Hi Christopher,

                I asked John Olley (who taught Hebrew at Vose Seminary) about your question. Here's his reply:

                ---begin quote---

                There are different constructions that may be relevant. In all there is the use of cognate forms. Zech 1:2 in Christopher's email is an instance of a noun and verb followed by a cognate noun (this construction is seen generally as a verb with a cognate object - see Gesenius-Kautsch §117q which uses the term 'internal object' or schema etymologicum; see also Jouon-Muraoka §155o. The construction you are referring to is when an infinitive absolute form is used before or after another form of the same verb.

                ---end quote---

                (The construction I referred to was "running he ran" = "he really ran".)

                Best,

                Tim Finney

                --- In textualcriticism@yahoogroups.com, "Danger" <sigebryht@...> wrote:
                >
                > Dear Colleagues,
                >
                > I am writing a paper for eventual publication (hopefully), but I need to know the correct term for the literary phenomenon I am describing in the Hebrew Scriptures.
                >
                > The concept I am describing is when the same lexical root is repeated in a sentence to provide emphasis.
                >
                > For example, note the repetition of QCP in Zechariah 1:2 - "The L-rd was angry with anger" (i.e., the L-rd was very angry). In this instance, the lexical root has the same basic meaning in both occurrences.
                >
                > Many commentators incorrectly call this "paranomasia" (or "paronomasia"), which is when a single lexical root is used with different meanings in the same text. (An example would be the use of GENNAO ANOTHEN in John 4, where Jesus is apparently using the expression to mean "born from above," while Nicodemus misunderstands him to mean "born again.")
                >
                > In other words, paranomasia is a pun. However, I need the correct term for the use of a repeated lexical root with the SAME meaning, not a word play.
                >
                > For an example in Greek, see the expression "PARANGELIA PARENGEILAMEN" IN Acts 5:28 - "We STRICTLY commanded." I suspect that the repetition of the same lexical root for emphasis here reflects Semitic usage. In other words, the author of Acts may be translating this expression directly from the Aramaic or Hebrew injunction issued by the Sanhedrin in this account.
                >
                > What is the correct label for this phenomenon in Hebrew literature?
                >
                > Sincerely,
                >
                > Christopher Lovelace
                >
              • bucksburg
                ... Actually, I prefer diplorhema, if I have to coin the word myself. An interesting case of Semetic diplorhema is in the account of the regicide of King
                Message 7 of 8 , Apr 5, 2013
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                  --- In textualcriticism@yahoogroups.com, "Danger" <sigebryht@...> wrote:

                  >> For an example in Greek, see the expression "PARANGELIA PARENGEILAMEN" IN Acts 5:28 - "We STRICTLY commanded." I suspect that the repetition of the same lexical root for emphasis here reflects Semitic usage. In other words, the author of Acts may be translating this expression directly from the Aramaic or Hebrew injunction issued by the Sanhedrin in this account.<<

                  Actually, I prefer diplorhema, if I have to coin the word myself. An interesting case of Semetic diplorhema is in the account of the regicide of King Amaziah in 2 Chronicles 25:27.

                  The Hebrew uses a diplorhema of QSR (conspire), and the LXX translates it with a Greek diplorhema, EPEQENTO AUTW EPIQESIN (in 2 Kings 14:19, SUNESTRAFHSAN EP AUTON SUSTREMMA).

                  In a similar context, 2 Kings 21:23 has QSR without any diplorhema in Hebrew or Greek.

                  Daniel Buck
                • bucksburg
                  ... I am writing a paper for eventual publication (hopefully), but I need to know the correct term for the literary phenomenon I am describing in the Hebrew
                  Message 8 of 8 , Apr 18, 2013
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                    --- In textualcriticism@yahoogroups.com, "Danger" <sigebryht@...> wrote:
                    >> Dear Colleagues,

                    I am writing a paper for eventual publication (hopefully), but I need to know the correct term for the literary phenomenon I am describing in the Hebrew Scriptures.

                    The concept I am describing is when the same lexical root is repeated in a sentence to provide emphasis.

                    For example, note the repetition of QCP in Zechariah 1:2 - "The L-rd was angry with anger" (i.e., the L-rd was very angry). In this instance, the lexical root has the same basic meaning in both occurrences.<<

                    I don't know why this hasn't been mentioned (I'd forgotten it myself), but the official term is 'infinitive absolute.'

                    http://www.textexcavation.com/infinitiveabsolute.html

                    Daniel Buck
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