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Re: [textualcriticism] LXX of Hebrew and Greek

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  • Drew Longacre
    Hi Mike,   Good questions. For some books (like Jeremiah, for instance), we have clear evidence of Hebrew scrolls that are almost precisely in the same form
    Message 1 of 2 , Sep 27, 2012
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      Hi Mike,
       
      Good questions. For some books (like Jeremiah, for instance), we have clear evidence of Hebrew scrolls that are almost precisely in the same form as the LXX. Like you said, however, much of the evidence is very partial, mixed, inconsistent, and difficult to draw generalizations from. It is very rare that we actually have Hebrew manuscripts that are clearly in the same tradition as the LXX against the MT.
       
      I'm still inclined to think that most (if not all) of the NT was originall written in Greek, but if part of it is in Greek translation, then you have an added textual layer. The LXX readings could then have come in at the stage of translation, instead of the original composition.
       
      And I'm no Greek paleographer, and I'm sure there are lots of debates about datings, but the critical editions usually do cite dates for the important LXX manuscripts.
       
      Hope that helps,
       
      Drew
       

      From: "steelcurtain40@..." <steelcurtain40@...>
      To: textualcriticism@yahoogroups.com
      Sent: Thursday, September 27, 2012 5:09 AM
      Subject: [textualcriticism] LXX of Hebrew and Greek

       
      Drew, you stated, "LXX Septuagint is normally used to refer to the Greek translation rather than the Hebrew text tradition from which it is based. " Yes, I was already aware of this. But as you said- the Greek LXX is just the skin of the Hebrew veins. Now, if my understanding serves me correctly (hang with me now ) it was a long time, even centuries, that we did not possess the Hebrew manuscript copies (the Hebrew LXX ) until Qumran (discovery of DSS). It was then and there, at Qumran, that we found a good number of the Hebrew manuscripts that made up the Septuagint (Greek OT). Have I been misinformed?

      When you say that there are no Hebrew manuscripts, what do you mean? Of course there are. The "70" translators had to have Hebrew manuscripts texts (copies) to make up the Greek LXX? No? You are most likely referring to Hebrew manuscripts that we have on hand or that were found at Qumran.

      Drew, when you said, "some scrolls obviously support the text forms found in the LXX but the picture is often much more unclear ;" wouldn't you say that is because, largely, what we find is a blended text style of MT/LXX sewn together?

      Drew, this may cause you to raise your eye brows some or roll your eyes in a circle because I would say that we are not 100% sure that the New Testament authors wrote in Greek, originally. There is some pretty hard evidence that much of the New Testament was written in first century Aramaic. I hope this does not disqualify me from this group. I DO NOT have an agenda. Let us just say this is a side reply for now and please feel free to give me your thoughts.

      Drew (anyone), can you tell me that, of the Greek Septuagint copies that we possess, have scholars been able to date most all of them with pretty close (ballpark ) accuracy like they do for the New Testament manuscripts found?

      Anyone, feel free to jump in and respond to any of the above questions. Thank you loads for your participation.

      Cordially,

      Mike Karoules

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