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RE: [textualcriticism] Matthew 28:19, Didache & Justin

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  • Minton, Ron
    I read all the interesting discussions on Matthew 28:19 and two things are clear. One is that no significant textual variants exist that might suggest the
    Message 1 of 18 , Apr 12, 2005
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      I read all the interesting discussions on Matthew 28:19 and two things
      are clear. One is that no significant textual variants exist that might
      suggest the passage is not genuine. The other is that one's religion
      strongly influences conclusions (e.g. the 2003 comments of Dr. Peterson
      of PA). I too am sometimes guilty, but, if possible, we should try to
      not bring our theological presuppositions to the forefront.
      Ron Minton
      -----Original Message-----
      From: voxverax [mailto:snapp@...]
      Sent: Monday, April 11, 2005 3:21 AM
      To: textualcriticism@yahoogroups.com
      Subject: [textualcriticism] Matthew 28:19, Didache & Justin

      Dear Kelton G.,

      While it may be true that no copy of Matthew 28:19 is in existence
      that was written prior to the Council of Nicea (depending on how
      precisely one dates Codex Vaticanus, which was produced at about the
      same time as the Council of Nicea), this is mainly if not altogether
      a result of natural forces of decay, not a conspiracy to insert the
      Triune formula into the text of Matthew.

      We do have later copies of the Gospel of Matthew which reflect
      different text-types, and all of them contain the phrase "in the name
      of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit" in 28:19.

      The footnote to the NAB is, I think, merely mentioning that some
      scholars think that this statement has been embellished; i.e., the
      idea is that the scholars think that the author here presents what he
      thinks Jesus should have said, rather than a historical saying of
      Jesus.

      You asked if there was anything to that. I can understand the doubt
      that a historian, working within the limits of the assumption of a
      closed continuum, would have about such a statement. After all,
      during Jesus' ministry, He was saying things like, "I am only sent ot
      the lost sheep of the house of Israel," and here in Matthew 28:19
      He's saying to make disciples of all nations. And, during Jesus'
      ministry, He was saying things like, "Why do you call Me good?"
      whereas here at the end of Matthew, Jesus claims authority in heaven
      and on earth. The difference is not hard to detect.

      But difference is not necessarily discord. Matthew ~ my name for the
      author of the Gospel of Matthew ~ claims that some important things
      have happened: chiefly, the death and resurrection of Jesus.
      Matthew does not spell out exactly what the implications of these
      events are. But he has set the stage, earlier in the book, for the
      sort of shift that is expressed in 28:19 -- a shift from focused
      ministry (in Israel, to Israel) to evangelism among the nations, and
      a shift from Christ-as-servant to Christ-as-ruler. In the interest
      of brevity I will leave that point sitting there, and just say that
      Matthew invites his readers to believe some pretty amazing things.
      Those who, like myself, believe the other things, will probably not
      find it difficult to believe that Jesus could have historically
      spoken the words in Matthew 28:19.

      Whether one takes the phrase in question as a verbatim quotation, or
      as a perceptive interpretation of Jesus' words, there is another
      question that I think you have encountered: was this phrase
      originally part of the Gospel of Matthew?

      I think the text-critical evidence of every kind says "Yes." Others
      have already shown you some early citations of it. I add to their
      lists the following: the Didache, chapter 7, and Justin Martyr's
      First Apology, chapter 61. Both of these compositions were written
      in the second century.

      At http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/didache-roberts.html
      you can read the Didache. Here's a relevant quote:

      "And concerning baptism, baptize this way: Having first said all
      these things, baptize into the name of the Father, and of the Son,
      and of the Holy Spirit, in living water."

      At http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/justinmartyr-
      firstapology.html you can read Justin Martyr's First Apology. Here's
      a relevant quote, edited for brevity, from chapter 61:

      "As many as are persuaded and believe that what we teach and say is
      true, and undertake to be able to live accordingly, are instructed to
      pray and to entreat God with fasting, for the remission of their sins
      that are past, we praying and fasting with them. Then they are
      brought by us where there is water, and are regenerated in the same
      manner in which we were ourselves regenerated. For, in the name of
      God, the Father and Lord of the universe, and of our Saviour Jesus
      Christ, and of the Holy Spirit, they then receive the washing with
      water. For Christ also said, "Except ye be born again, ye shall not
      enter into the kingdom of heaven." . . . In order that we may not
      remain the children of necessity and of ignorance, but may become the
      children of choice and knowledge, and may obtain in the water the
      remission of sins formerly committed, there is pronounced over him
      who chooses to be born again, and has repented of his sins, the name
      of God the Father and Lord of the universe; he who leads to the laver
      the person that is to be washed calling him by this name alone. . . .
      And this washing is called illumination, because they who learn these
      things are illuminated in their understandings. And in the name of
      Jesus Christ, who was crucified under Pontius Pilate, and in the name
      of the Holy Ghost, who through the prophets foretold all things about
      Jesus, he who is illuminated is washed."

      Yours in Christ,

      Jim Snapp II
      Curtisville Christian Church
      Indiana (USA)
    • Jovial
      Here are some ancient writings that include this verse: a.. Ignatius (30 AD - 107AD) quotes this verse in The Epistle of Ignatius to the Philippians, in
      Message 2 of 18 , Jan 24, 2006
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        Here are some ancient writings that include this verse:
        • Ignatius (30 AD - 107AD) quotes this verse in The Epistle of Ignatius to the Philippians, in Chapter IX.  That's a pretty early reference. 
        • Tertullian (b160 AD) also quotes this verse in Against Praxeas, chapter 2 as well as in his writing On Baptism, Chapter XIII. 
        • Hippolytus [170-236 AD] quotes this verse in Part II.-Dogmatical and Historical.,Against the Heresy of One Noetus, 14
        • Cyprian (200-258AD) quotes it in The Seventh Council of Carthage Under Cyprian.
        • Gregory Thaumaturgus (205-265 AD) quotes it in A Sectional Confession of Faith, XIII
        • Origen (185-254 AD), Fragmenta in evangelium Joannis 36.35;  
        • Pseudo-Justin Martyr (3rd-4th century AD), Expositio rectae fidei 376.A.9

        It also appears in a number of anonymous writings from the Ante-Nicean period (30-325 AD). including:

        What's more, in appears in the Aramaic, Greek and Latin manuscripts from about the 4th century AD.  So if it is a "corrupted" text, how did someone manage to corrupt all 3 languages?  But indeed, we see that this verse is quoted from a very early time frame, and no early believers in Messiah ever quote it as reading differently.    

        One lone exception exists. Eusebius (c320 AD) semi-quotes this verse in Book III, chapter 5, of his Ecclesiastical History, as

        "Go ye and make disciples of all the nations in my name."

        However Eusebius is clearly quoting paraphrasingly from memory, since he mentions nothing about baptism in this quote. It not only replaces "Name of the Father..." with "my name", but completely drops "baptizing them in..." altogether. But Eusebius' memory for quoting scripture does not seem so great. Eusebius can be found to paraphrase the scriptures in a number of places.  Other places where Eusebius paraphrases are:

        • Isa 66:8 "seen thusly" quotes as "spoken thusly" in Eccl Hist, Book I, ch 4, verse 3
        • In EH III.7.5, he abridges the grammatical wordiness of Luke 19:44 without changing the meaning, but also quotes "trenches" as "ramps".
        • He quotes Ps/Teh 107:20 as, "He sent his Word and healed them, and delivered them from their destructions." (book I, ch 2, verse 8)
        • Gen/Ber 18:3 "...do not pass your servant by"quoted as "the judge of all the earth, wilt thou not execute righteous judgment?" "

        Also, Eusebius wrote some 50-300 years AFTER the writers listed above, who already established this verse in agreement with its current canonical form.

        In another place, in Eusebius quotes Matt 28:19 as ...

        "Go ye, and make disciples of all the nations, teaching them to observe all things, whatsoever I have commanded you." (Eusebius in THE PROOF OF THE GOSPEL, Book I, Chapter 4, near the end)

        Notice here how he's left out any mention of EITHER "baptizing..." or "in My Name" or "In the Name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit". Here, Eusebius simply quoted that part of Matt 28:19 that he deemed relevant to the issue he was trying to prove. Now those who try to allege that Matt 28:19 is a corruption have to rest there entuire case on how Eusebius quotes this verse, yet Eusebius doesn't quote it the same way both times, and is obviously only quoting the part he plans to comment on.

        In yet another place, Eusebius quotes this verse as saying...

        "Jesus the Son of God, said to His disciples after His Resurrection: "Go and make disciples of all the nations,'' and added: "Teaching them to observe all things, whatsoever I have commanded you.'' " (Eusebius in THE PROOF OF THE GOSPEL, Book I, Chapter 3)

        So here, Eusebius even admits to us that he is editing the text, by inserting the phrase "and added" because he knew this was not a full quotation from start to finish.

        So we see here that Eusebius cannot agree with himself on how to quote Matt 28:19, for he quotes it with a variety of wording such as ...

        • "Go ye, and make disciples of all the nations, teaching them to observe all things, whatsoever I have commanded you." (Eusebius in THE PROOF OF THE GOSPEL, Book I, Chapter 4, near the end)
        • "Go ye and make disciples of all the nations in my name." (Book III, chapter 5, of his Ecclesiastical History)
        • "Jesus the Son of God, said to His disciples after His Resurrection: "Go and make disciples of all the nations,'' and added: "Teaching them to observe all things, whatsoever I have commanded you.'' " (Eusebius in THE PROOF OF THE GOSPEL, Book I, Chapter 3)
        • "Go ye into all the world, and make disciples of all the nations . . . teaching them to observe whatsoever I have commanded you." (Eusebius in THE PROOF OF THE GOSPEL, Book I, Chapter 6)

        usually depending on the context in which he is trying to promote one idea or another. Virtually every time he quotes it, he abbreviates it in some way, usually leaving out all mention of "in ___ Name", perhaps because he considered that to be not relevant to how he was quoting the text and what he was tring to prove. Most of the time, he leaves out the "in my name" part, even though he clearly said it was there in another place. It would seem that this verse was just too long for Eusebius' purposes, so he abridged it when he quoted it several times.

        Also, Eusebius wrote some 50-300 years AFTER the writers listed above, who already established this verse in agreement with its current canonical form.

        The fact that the scriptures existed in 3 languages from a very early stage (Aramaic, Greek and Latin) and were quoted extensively by many people who wished to comment on it, demonstrate that the New Testament we have today is essentially the same as what came off the pen of the apostles, and we need not fear that any verses have been "corrupted" to the point of teaching doctrine that is not in line with sound concepts.   

        Joe Viel

        ----- Original Message -----
        Sent: Monday, January 23, 2006 7:48 AM
        Subject: [textualcriticism] Matthew 28:18

        Has anyone done any research on the presentation by Kirsopp Lake
        questioning the text of Matthew 28:18. Whereas the present text in
        UBS4 has "Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing
        them into the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy
        Spirit," Lake presents evidence from Eusebius, which is earlier than
        mss that we have where he quotes the verse, "Go therefore and make
        disciples in my name" absent the mention of baptism into the name of
        the F, S, and HG.

        Your help would be appreciated,

        Danny Dixon







      • Peter M. Head
        ... Early indeed, only Ignatius letter to the Philippians is generally not regarded as authentically Ignatian.
        Message 3 of 18 , Jan 25, 2006
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          At 13:34 24/01/2006, you wrote:
          >Here are some ancient writings that include this verse:
          > * Ignatius (30 AD - 107AD) quotes this verse in The Epistle of
          > Ignatius to the Philippians, in Chapter IX. That's a pretty early reference.

          Early indeed, only Ignatius' letter to the Philippians is generally
          not regarded as authentically Ignatian.
        • Budelberger, Richard
          6 pluviôse an CCXIV (le 25 janvier 2006 d. c.-d. c. g.), 11h56. De : Jovial À : Textual Criticism Envoyé : mardi 24 janvier 2006 14:34 Objet : Re:
          Message 4 of 18 , Jan 25, 2006
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            6 pluviôse an CCXIV (le 25 janvier 2006 d. c.-d. c. g.), 11h56.

            De :
            Jovial
            À : Textual Criticism
            Envoyé : mardi 24 janvier 2006 14:34
            Objet : Re: [textualcriticism] Matthew 28:19

            Here are some ancient writings that include this verse:
            • Ignatius (30 AD - 107AD) quotes this verse in The Epistle of Ignatius to the Philippians, in Chapter IX.  That's a pretty early reference. 
            • Tertullian (b160 AD) also quotes this verse in Against Praxeas, chapter 2 as well as in his writing On Baptism, Chapter XIII. 
            • Hippolytus [170-236 AD] quotes this verse in Part II.-Dogmatical and Historical.,Against the Heresy of One Noetus, 14
            • Cyprian (200-258AD) quotes it in The Seventh Council of Carthage Under Cyprian.
            • Gregory Thaumaturgus (205-265 AD) quotes it in A Sectional Confession of Faith, XIII
            • Origen (185-254 AD), Fragmenta in evangelium Joannis 36.35;  
            • Pseudo-Justin Martyr (3rd-4th century AD), Expositio rectae fidei 376.A.9
                Irénée de Lyon (2nd-3rd century AD) Adversus Haereses, III, 17, 1.


                R. B.

            See : Cf. <news://news.franconews.org/dqja2v$58m$1@...> (in French).
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