Luke 23:34 Then said Jesus,
Father, forgive them; for they know not what they do.
And they parted his raiment, and cast lots.
And I see one point I want to raise about
textual criticism approaches and I will keep it simple, as a question,
only looking at one reference.
Moreover, one of these pre-fourth-century witnesses is Origen (ca.
185-254). whose citations of Luke consistently support the Alexandrian
text. Whitlark and Parsons dismiss Origen's testimony, claiming that his
"writings evidence many distinctly Western readings." but they
make no attempt to explain why one should presume that Origen used a
Western text when writing De Pascha (2.43.7-14) and Homiliae in Leviticim
(2.1.5). both of which quote the prayer.
Why by any sensible logic, would the value
of Origen's evidence, showing what Greek Bible he had in his hand in
the early 200s .. vary dependent on complicated and even
convoluted categories of manuscripts created in the 1800s,
categories that barely have meaning in the Ante-Nicene period
? Is there not a major Mack Truck flaw of logical anachronism
Your thoughts appreciated.
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