Re: [textualcriticism] Re: Exploring How the Gospel of Mark was Made
- On Fri, Jul 03, 2009 at 07:29:42PM -0000, Jay Rogers wrote:
> JR: "What language was Mark written in?"Most likely because the people to whom Mark was writing were Greek-
> JS: Greek.
> Why Greek if it was written to Italians? I realize that the vast
> consensus is Greek, but this question seems logical. If one were writing
> to Latin speakers, and if Mark was indeed the "interpreter" of Peter,
> who was likely speaking in Aramaic or Greek, why not write in the
> Italians' own language?
speakers; there were a LOT of Greek-speakers in urban environments
throughout the Roman empire. Tacitus' opinion of Rome and the
flood of eastern immigrants pouring into it should be well enough
known not to need quotation.
(For that matter, in this period much of Southern Italy was _still_
Greek-speaking, if I recall correctly, and portions remained so
until the Middle Ages and the Norman conquest of Apulia, but I'm
not so sure this is relevant to Mark in Rome.)
Peter was more likely speaking in Aramaic and needing someone to
interpret him into Greek (or at least assist him with his
phrasing), rather than needing to translate his Greek into Latin.
O, how comely it is, and how reviving
To the spirits of just men long oppressed,
When God into the hand of their deliverer
Puts invincible might. -- Milton, _Samson Agonistes_
- Hi Folks,
>Why Greek if it was written to Italians? I realize that the vastJames Snapp
>consensus is Greek, but this question seems logical. If one were
>writing to Latin speakers, and if Mark was indeed the "interpreter"
>of Peter, who was likely speaking in Aramaic or Greek, why not write
>in the Italians' own language?
>The reason why Mark would write for Italians in Greek is that theSteven
>Italians, then and there, were speaking and reading and writing in
All of them ? As their first language or second ?
>If you would like to see demonstrations of the extensive verbalSteven
>affinities (in Greek) between Mark, Matthew, and Luke, consult John
>Hawkins' "Horae Synopticae," which can be downloaded for free from
>Google Books or Archive.org.
Since a translation from Latin or a Graeco-Latin dialect to Greek
would likely have been done by someone aware of Mark and Matthew,
such verbal affinities are expected in all scenarios.
>Jaay Rogers:James Snapp
>"Just how would (theoretically) a Latin copy be involved in the loss
>of the longer ending?"
> Theoretically ..- if Mark had written the Gospel of Mark in Latin,someone could have translated an early draft of it into Greek,
And this was the theory of Herman Hoskier, accompanied with extensive
analysis, that Mark was written in either Latin or a Graeco-Latin dialect.