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Re: [textualcriticism] Re: Exploring How the Gospel of Mark was Made

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  • Tony Zbaraschuk
    ... Most likely because the people to whom Mark was writing were Greek- speakers; there were a LOT of Greek-speakers in urban environments throughout the Roman
    Message 1 of 65 , Jul 3, 2009
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      On Fri, Jul 03, 2009 at 07:29:42PM -0000, Jay Rogers wrote:
      > JR: "What language was Mark written in?"
      >
      > JS: Greek.
      >
      > Why Greek if it was written to Italians? I realize that the vast
      > consensus is Greek, but this question seems logical. If one were writing
      > to Latin speakers, and if Mark was indeed the "interpreter" of Peter,
      > who was likely speaking in Aramaic or Greek, why not write in the
      > Italians' own language?

      Most likely because the people to whom Mark was writing were Greek-
      speakers; there were a LOT of Greek-speakers in urban environments
      throughout the Roman empire. Tacitus' opinion of Rome and the
      flood of eastern immigrants pouring into it should be well enough
      known not to need quotation.

      (For that matter, in this period much of Southern Italy was _still_
      Greek-speaking, if I recall correctly, and portions remained so
      until the Middle Ages and the Norman conquest of Apulia, but I'm
      not so sure this is relevant to Mark in Rome.)

      Peter was more likely speaking in Aramaic and needing someone to
      interpret him into Greek (or at least assist him with his
      phrasing), rather than needing to translate his Greek into Latin.



      Tony Zbaraschuk

      --
      O, how comely it is, and how reviving
      To the spirits of just men long oppressed,
      When God into the hand of their deliverer
      Puts invincible might. -- Milton, _Samson Agonistes_
    • schmuel
      Hi Folks, Jay Rogers ... James Snapp ... Steven All of them ? As their first language or second ? James Snapp ... Steven Since a translation from Latin or a
      Message 65 of 65 , Aug 12, 2009
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        Hi Folks,

        Jay Rogers
        >Why Greek if it was written to Italians? I realize that the vast
        >consensus is Greek, but this question seems logical. If one were
        >writing to Latin speakers, and if Mark was indeed the "interpreter"
        >of Peter, who was likely speaking in Aramaic or Greek, why not write
        >in the Italians' own language?

        James Snapp
        >The reason why Mark would write for Italians in Greek is that the
        >Italians, then and there, were speaking and reading and writing in
        >Greek.

        Steven
        All of them ? As their first language or second ?

        James Snapp
        >If you would like to see demonstrations of the extensive verbal
        >affinities (in Greek) between Mark, Matthew, and Luke, consult John
        >Hawkins' "Horae Synopticae," which can be downloaded for free from
        >Google Books or Archive.org.

        Steven
        Since a translation from Latin or a Graeco-Latin dialect to Greek
        would likely have been done by someone aware of Mark and Matthew,
        such verbal affinities are expected in all scenarios.

        >Jaay Rogers:
        >"Just how would (theoretically) a Latin copy be involved in the loss
        >of the longer ending?"

        James Snapp
        > Theoretically ..- if Mark had written the Gospel of Mark in Latin,
        someone could have translated an early draft of it into Greek,

        Steven
        And this was the theory of Herman Hoskier, accompanied with extensive
        analysis, that Mark was written in either Latin or a Graeco-Latin dialect.

        Shalom,
        Steven Avery
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