Matt 16:17-19 vs. Mk 8:29, Lk 9:20 omission or addition?
- Good day to all and thanks to Mr. Walker for admitting me to the
group. I would be most grateful if someone could help me with the
Presuming that the writer(s) of Luke were aware of Peter's
Confession in Matt.16, they apparently opted, for whatever reason,
to omit verses 17-19 and to follow Mark 8:29, or a similar source,
for Luke 9:20. If, perhaps, verses 17-19 were not at that time
present in Matthew, (or at least in Luke's copy), one might wonder
if the reading was a later addition and subsequently came to be the
accepted version (a gross oversimplification, I realize). Although I
have not seen a critical apparatus giving such a reference, is
anyone aware of any extant manuscript evidence omitting the reading
in Matthew or possibly even a patristic reference? Does anyone
know of a commentary speculating such a possibility?