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Matt 16:17-19 vs. Mk 8:29, Lk 9:20 omission or addition?

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  • ronirvine@ymail.com
    Good day to all and thanks to Mr. Walker for admitting me to the group. I would be most grateful if someone could help me with the following question.
    Message 1 of 1 , Dec 30, 2008
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      Good day to all and thanks to Mr. Walker for admitting me to the
      group. I would be most grateful if someone could help me with the
      following question.

      Presuming that the writer(s) of Luke were aware of Peter's
      Confession in Matt.16, they apparently opted, for whatever reason,
      to omit verses 17-19 and to follow Mark 8:29, or a similar source,
      for Luke 9:20. If, perhaps, verses 17-19 were not at that time
      present in Matthew, (or at least in Luke's copy), one might wonder
      if the reading was a later addition and subsequently came to be the
      accepted version (a gross oversimplification, I realize). Although I
      have not seen a critical apparatus giving such a reference, is
      anyone aware of any extant manuscript evidence omitting the reading
      in Matthew – or possibly even a patristic reference? Does anyone
      know of a commentary speculating such a possibility?

      Thanks.

      Ron Irvine
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