[Warning! This is getting off-topic. Please continue elsewhere.]
Rage and anarchy which result in the ARBITRARY taking of life do not constitute LEGAL RIGHT/PRIVILEDGE nor does the argumenta ex silentia of any legal consequences from the proper legal authorities (Roman) pertaining thereunto counteract a rebuttal from your perspective re this historical reality. Historical inaccuracies are one sure tell-tell sign that the text does not establish itself as the word of God and therfore non canonical.
Re: The Pericope de Adultera and Greek Lectionary influence
<< One final note, the pericope presupposes that the Jews of Jesus'
ministry on earth had the authority to kill. This [is refuted]
elsewhere in the Gospel narrative.>>
There are a couple of problems with this assertion.
1) The text specifically says that this was a setup by the Scribes
and/or Pharisees. It should have been a lose/lose proposition for
Jesus: if he said "stone her," he would be in trouble with the Romans
for instigating a lynching, as alluded to in 18:31. If he said "free
her," he would be seen as "soft on crime" and loose popular support.
They did not, of course, forsee the third option, which made them out
to be the losers instead. But no authority under ROMAN law to execute
was ever claimed; only under MOSAIC law.
2) Lynchings by stoning did in fact occur during that era, as seen by
the examples of Stephen in Acts 7 and James in the