Re: The Pericope de Adultera and Greek Lectionary influence
- "Have you realised that the Pericope was apparently absolutely
unknown to every Greek Father whose writings have been preserved,
till Euthymius Zigabenus in the 11th century?"
--F. J. A. Hort, writing to B. F. Westcott
"Jeffrey B. Gibson" wrote:
>> In any case, tell us please which Greek Father knows the PA. Andplease do not confuse lectionairies with Fathers.<<
Dr. Ehrman has already addressed the first sentence. My quote from
Burgon addressed the second. I reiterate his point: The silence of
Greek Fathers is no indication that they were ignorant of the
Pericope, when the very lectionaries being used in their own churches
are certain to have contained it in the 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th, and 11th
centuries, speaking with "a voice of thunder" to the 'silence'
attributed to Greek Fathers during that time.
Silent they may have been; ignorant they could not have been.
- Malcomb wrote:
<< One final note, the pericope presupposes that the Jews of Jesus'
ministry on earth had the authority to kill. This [is refuted]
elsewhere in the Gospel narrative.>>
There are a couple of problems with this assertion.
1) The text specifically says that this was a setup by the Scribes
and/or Pharisees. It should have been a lose/lose proposition for
Jesus: if he said "stone her," he would be in trouble with the Romans
for instigating a lynching, as alluded to in 18:31. If he said "free
her," he would be seen as "soft on crime" and loose popular support.
They did not, of course, forsee the third option, which made them out
to be the losers instead. But no authority under ROMAN law to execute
was ever claimed; only under MOSAIC law.
2) Lynchings by stoning did in fact occur during that era, as seen by
the examples of Stephen in Acts 7 and James in the History of