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RE: [textualcriticism] The Pericope de Adultera and Greek Lectionary influence

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  • Bart Ehrman
    Yes, I d like to point out that I ve written an entire article about the use of the passage -- or one like it rather -- in the writings of Didymus the Blind
    Message 1 of 60 , Oct 10, 2008
          Yes, I'd like to point out that I've written an entire article about the use of the  passage -- or one like it rather -- in the writings of Didymus the Blind (4th century), arguing that in fact Didymus knew a different form of the passage from the one now in mss of the 4G (he says it can be found in "several gospels), and that there was yet another version floating around known to the author of the Didascalia (3rd century), and that the now familiar account represents a conflation of the two (New Testament Studies, 34 [1988] 24-44)
           So I certainly don't think that it is not *mentioned* by Greek writers prior to the 12th century.  The point is that the biblical commentaries on John (e.g., Origen!!) have no knowledge of it before then.
      -- Bart Ehrman
      Bart D. Ehrman
      James A. Gray Professor
      Department of Religious Studies
      University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill

      From: textualcriticism@yahoogroups.com [mailto:textualcriticism@yahoogroups.com] On Behalf Of Jeffrey B. Gibson
      Sent: Friday, October 10, 2008 9:33 AM
      To: textualcriticism@yahoogroups.com
      Subject: Re: [textualcriticism] The Pericope de Adultera and Greek Lectionary influence

      Daniel wrote:

      > There seems to have been some ongoing chronological
      confusion here.
      > It has been commonly (albeit incorrectly) pointed out
      (even by Bart
      > Ehrman) that no Greek writer prior to the 12 century
      referred to the
      > PA;
      Actually if there's anything that's continually incorrect, it's the
      claim made by PA supporters about that Metzger/Ehrman have made the
      claim above.

      What Metzger/Erhman actually say is that "No Greek Church Father prior
      to Euthymius Zigabenus (twelfth century) *comments on the passage*, and
      Euthymius declares that the accurate copies of the Gospel do not contain


      Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon)
      1500 W. Pratt Blvd.
      Chicago, Illinois
      e-mail jgibson000@comcast. net

    • Daniel
      Malcomb wrote:
      Message 60 of 60 , Oct 15, 2008
        Malcomb wrote:
        << One final note, the pericope presupposes that the Jews of Jesus'
        ministry on earth had the authority to kill. This [is refuted]
        elsewhere in the Gospel narrative.>>

        There are a couple of problems with this assertion.

        1) The text specifically says that this was a setup by the Scribes
        and/or Pharisees. It should have been a lose/lose proposition for
        Jesus: if he said "stone her," he would be in trouble with the Romans
        for instigating a lynching, as alluded to in 18:31. If he said "free
        her," he would be seen as "soft on crime" and loose popular support.
        They did not, of course, forsee the third option, which made them out
        to be the losers instead. But no authority under ROMAN law to execute
        was ever claimed; only under MOSAIC law.

        2) Lynchings by stoning did in fact occur during that era, as seen by
        the examples of Stephen in Acts 7 and James in the History of

        Daniel Buck
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