Re: [textualcriticism] The Pericope de Adultera and Greek Lectionary influence
- Daniel wrote:
> There seems to have been some ongoing chronological confusion here.Actually if there's anything that's continually incorrect, it's the
> It has been commonly (albeit incorrectly) pointed out (even by Bart
> Ehrman) that no Greek writer prior to the 12 century referred to the
claim made by PA supporters about that Metzger/Ehrman have made the
What Metzger/Erhman actually say is that "No Greek Church Father prior
to Euthymius Zigabenus (twelfth century) *comments on the passage*, and
Euthymius declares that the accurate copies of the Gospel do not contain
Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon)
1500 W. Pratt Blvd.
- Malcomb wrote:
<< One final note, the pericope presupposes that the Jews of Jesus'
ministry on earth had the authority to kill. This [is refuted]
elsewhere in the Gospel narrative.>>
There are a couple of problems with this assertion.
1) The text specifically says that this was a setup by the Scribes
and/or Pharisees. It should have been a lose/lose proposition for
Jesus: if he said "stone her," he would be in trouble with the Romans
for instigating a lynching, as alluded to in 18:31. If he said "free
her," he would be seen as "soft on crime" and loose popular support.
They did not, of course, forsee the third option, which made them out
to be the losers instead. But no authority under ROMAN law to execute
was ever claimed; only under MOSAIC law.
2) Lynchings by stoning did in fact occur during that era, as seen by
the examples of Stephen in Acts 7 and James in the History of