Acts 8:27 in D
- How has the fact that at Acts 8:27 D reads ὃς ἦν ἐπὶ πάσης τῆς γάζης
αὐτοῦ instead of ὃς ἦν ἐπὶ πάσης τῆς γάζης αὐτῆς been explained?
What is the merit of the Peshitta primacists claim that this reading is
based upon the Peshitta and reflects the fact that the Syriac word
underlying αὐτοῦ is either masculine or feminine?
Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon)
1500 W. Pratt Blvd.