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Wachtel and Acts

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  • waynecoc
    Hi Wieland, I noticed that in the review of Read-Heimerdinger by Klaus Wachtel, the reviewer said, The table seems to say that the percentage of text affected
    Message 1 of 2 , Sep 22, 2004
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      Hi Wieland,
       
      I noticed that in the review of Read-Heimerdinger by Klaus Wachtel, the reviewer said, "The table seems to say that the percentage of text affected by variation is smaller in D05 than in B03.  How is this possible, if only these two manuscripts were compared?"  
       
      Wachtel states that the table implies that "The additions that make for the larger number of words in D05 are not treated as variants, whereas they are treated as omissions in B03."
       
      I'm not sure about that.  Wouldn't a larger number of words in the variants in D be capable of being a smaller percentage of a larger quantity of words?  If B has fewer words in the variant-units and in the text as a whole, the percentage of words involved in variants wouldn't requre a judgment about whether or not they are omissions.  Right?
       
      I'm thinking, let's say ms. X has 1000 words, and variants that involve 50 words.  And ms. Y has 1050 words, and variants that involve 50 words.  The percentage of text in X that is affected by variation in X =  5%.  And the percentage of text in Y that is affected by variation in Y = 4.76%.  
       
      Just trying to understand what Wachtel was saying.
       
      Yours in Christ,
       
      Jim Snapp II
       
      ----- Original Message -----
      Sent: Wednesday, September 22, 2004 2:56 AM
      Subject: [textualcriticism] Wachtel's review on Read-Heimerdinger

      I would like to draw attention to Klaus Wachtel's review of
      Read-Heimerdinger, Jenny
      "The Bezan Text of Acts: A Contribution of Discourse Analysis to Textual
      Criticism"

      http://www.bookreviews.org/pdf/3197_3703.pdf

      I think the known sentence of Richard P. Feynman fits well to this book:
      "The first principle is that you must not fool yourself - and you are
      the easiest person to fool."

      Best wishes
          Wieland
             <><
      ------------------------------------------------
      Wieland Willker, Bremen, Germany
      mailto:willker@...-bremen.de
      http://www.uni-bremen.de/~wie
      Textcritical commentary:
      http://www.uni-bremen.de/~wie/TCG/index.html



    • Wieland Willker
      ... Both yours and Read-Heimerdinger s calculations are mathematically correct, but have no meaning. To take it to the extreme, for example, let s say D added
      Message 2 of 2 , Sep 24, 2004
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        Jim Snapp II wrote:
        > I'm thinking, let's say ms. X has 1000 words, and variants that
        > involve 50 words. And ms. Y has 1050 words, and variants that
        > involve 50 words. The percentage of text in X that is affected by
        > variation in X = 5%. And the percentage of text in Y that is
        > affected by variation in Y = 4.76%.


        Both yours and Read-Heimerdinger's calculations are mathematically
        correct, but have no meaning. To take it to the extreme, for example,
        let's say D added at 100 places 100.000 words each. In that case the
        percentage of variation would be about 0.001% for D, but roughly 1% for
        B.
        To draw conclusions from these numbers is nonsense.

        What Wachtel means by the following sentence, I don't know.
        "That means the additions that make for the larger number of words in
        D05 are not treated as variants, whereas they are treated as omissions
        in B03."

        Best wishes
        Wieland
        <><
        ------------------------------------------------
        Wieland Willker, Bremen, Germany
        mailto:willker@...-bremen.de
        http://www.uni-bremen.de/~wie
        Textcritical commentary:
        http://www.uni-bremen.de/~wie/TCG/index.html
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