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Re: Itacisms

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  • DC PARKER
    Mark_O Brien wrote ... my question: How do we explain these cases of itacism where there was no hearing involved? Was there in fact a stage in the
    Message 1 of 1714 , Nov 16, 1995
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      Mark_O'Brien wrote
      >
      > After doing a bunch of collation in Sinaiticus, and noticing the great
      > multitude of itacisms, I was curious about the theories regarding
      > these variants. What is the concensus out there about how a
      > manuscript like Sinaiticus was copied? Was the scribe following an
      > oral reading of an exemplar, or was he following a written copy in
      > front of him? Most textbooks seem to indicate that itacism was the
      > result of hearing errors (eg. Metzger), but there seem to be
      > indications in Sinaiticus that it was not based on an oral reading of
      > an exemplar (occurences of haplography and dittography). Hence
      my question: How do we explain these cases of itacism where there
      was no hearing involved? Was there in fact a stage in the
      development of the Greek language where some of these itacisms
      were in fact the correct spellings of words?
      >
      > I'm just trying to think through these issues and would appreciate
      > any insights. Thanks.


      I would recommend reading Milne & Skeat, "Scribes & Correctors of
      the Codex Sinaiticus, esp. Ch. VII, 'Orthography & the Dictation
      Theory'.

      On Koine Greek, read first F.T. Gignac, "A Grammar of the Greek
      Papyri of the Rom. & Byz. Periods, Vol. 1 Phonology" (Testi e
      Documenti per lo Studio dell'Antichita 55), Milan, n.d. (but about
      1975), and G. Mussies, "The Morphology of Koine Greek as used in
      the Apoc. of St. John", Leiden: Brill, 1971.
    • Julian Goldberg
      The complete Hebrew Scriptures (Hebrew Bible) or TANAKH (Torah-Law, Neviim-Prophets, Ketuvim-Writings) based on the Masoretic Hebrew text with vowels and
      Message 1714 of 1714 , Feb 4, 1997
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        M5A 1N0.

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