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  • Mark O'Brien
    Nov 15, 1995
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      I haven't seen any mail rolling off this list since I signed up, so I
      thought that I would throw a question out there for y'all.

      After doing a bunch of collation in Sinaiticus, and noticing the great
      multitude of itacisms, I was curious about the theories regarding
      these variants. What is the concensus out there about how a
      manuscript like Sinaiticus was copied? Was the scribe following an
      oral reading of an exemplar, or was he following a written copy in
      front of him? Most textbooks seem to indicate that itacism was the
      result of hearing errors (eg. Metzger), but there seem to be
      indications in Sinaiticus that it was not based on an oral reading of
      an exemplar (occurences of haplography and dittography). Hence my
      question: How do we explain these cases of itacism where there was
      no hearing involved? Was there in fact a stage in the development of
      the Greek language where some of these itacisms were in fact the
      correct spellings of words?

      I'm just trying to think through these issues and would appreciate
      any insights. Thanks.

      Mark O'Brien
      Grad. Student, Dallas Seminary
      "We were put on earth to accomplish a certain number of things. Right now, I'm
      so far behind, I will never die!"
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