[Synoptic-L] the occasion of the demand for a sign in Matt. 16:1
- With apologies for cross posting.
Matthew presents the feeding of the 4000 (Matt. 15:32-39) as the
occasion of his second account of the story of a demand for a sign
(Matt. 16:1-4; cf. Matt 12:38-39). What is the scholarly consensus
nowadays regarding Matthew's assumptions about the ethnicity of the
4000? Is it that they are Gentiles? If so, what evidence is pointed to
as supporting this contention? I note, for starters, that the stories
which immediately precede that feeding of the 400 seem to locate Jesus
in Gentile territory and have him healing at least one Gentile. Then
there's the curious fact that those who witness Jesus' healings of "the
lame, the maimed, the blind, the dumb that they have brought out to him,
give glory to "the God of Israel" when they saw the cures that Jesus
wrought, which would seem to indicate that they and those whom Jesus
heals are not Jews. Anything else?
Thanks in advance.
Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon.)
1500 W. Pratt Blvd. #1
Chicago, IL 60626
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