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[Synoptic-L] Missing piece of my first post.

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  • RickR370@aol.com
    Kathws is a conjunction that Mark uses 8 times. Everytime he uses it he compares something before the conjunction with something that comes after. That is the
    Message 1 of 2 , Oct 17, 2004
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      Kathws is a conjunction that Mark uses 8 times. Everytime he uses it he compares something before the conjunction with something that comes after. That is the very nature of a conjunction. It forms a connective bridge between two literary items. What comes before the conjuction in Mark 1:2 is "The beginning of the Gosple of Jesus Christ the son of God". What comes after the conjuction is "Just as it stands written in the prophet Isaiah.
      The subject of the first clause is the beginning of the Gospel. This is the item Mark wants to connect with with Isaiah the prophet. If we turn to Isaiah 40 verse 9. will will see that euaggleius is uses two times in this verse.

      Sorry for not including this in the first post to the list

      Rick Richmond


    • Jeffrey B. Gibson
      ... Actually, what comes after KAQWS ( just as ) is not ** just as it stands (is) written , but simply it stands (is) written . Where do you get the extra
      Message 2 of 2 , Oct 17, 2004
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        RickR370@... wrote:

        Kathws is a conjunction that Mark uses 8 times. Everytime he uses it he compares something before the conjunction with something that comes after. That is the very nature of a conjunction. It forms a connective bridge between two literary items. What comes before the conjuction in Mark 1:2 is "The beginning of the Gosple of Jesus Christ the son of God". What comes after the conjuction is "Just as it stands written in the prophet Isaiah.
        Actually, what  comes after KAQWS ("just as") is not "** just as it stands (is) written", but simply "it stands (is) written".  Where do you get the extra "just as" that you seem to be positing?

        And isn't it the case that when Mark elsewhere uses  KAQWS GEGRAPTAI, as he does here -- i.e.,  before a scriptural citation, the expression functions expressly as a "citation formula"?

        After all that's how it functions not only in all of the rest of its appearances in the NT, as well as when it is used in the LXX, the Acts of Philip, the Apophthegmata), the Testament of the Twelve Patriarchs, the Apocalypsis Eliae, by Clement of Rome and Clement of Alexandria and Irenaus, and (albeit in its Hebrew counterpart) in the DSS and the Rabbinic literature, but also in the works of such "secular" writers as Heron Mechnicus and Vettius Valens.

        So why is not operating this way here?

        Is there any instance that you know of where KAQWS is followed, as it is in Mk 1:2,   by GEGRAPTAI + quotation/citation,  where KAQWS does not operate this way?

        Jeffrey Gibson
        --

        Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon.)

        1500 W. Pratt Blvd. #1
        Chicago, IL 60626

        jgibson000@...
         

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