Re: [Synoptic-L] The Timing Of The Text of Luke 22:7
- In a message dated 3/12/2002 8:43:15 AM Eastern Standard Time,
The Greek word used here for 'came' is # 2064 "Erchomai" is
frequently translated as, "to come" and is translated as "coming" in the
Your comments show ignorance of Greek linguistic usage. "To come" would often
be a proper rendering of this verb in the infinitive form, and "coming" would
often render correctly the participial (present participle) form of the verb.
Neither of these two forms of the verb are used in Lk 22:7, which uses
instead an aorist form of Erchomai, normally referring to a past, and never
to a future event. Thus, the texts you cite are irrelevant to the translation
of Lk 22:7, since none of them use the same form of the verb as is used in
that text, and some, such as Matt 24:48, do not contain the verb Erchomai at
<< Matt. 16: 28 - The Son of man "coming" in His kingdom.
Matt. 24:30 - The Son of man "coming"....
Matt. 24:48 - My lord delayeth his "coming"
Matt. 25:27 - at my "coming" I should have received...
Luke 12:45 - My lord delayeth His "coming"..
Luke 18:6 - by her continual "coming" she weary me.
Luke 19:23 - at my "coming" I might have required...
Luke 23:26 - a Cyrenian "coming" out of the country...
Luke 23:29 - Behold the days are "coming" in which...
John 1:27 - "Coming" after me is preferred before me>>
<< Since in the earliest documents of the church, and from the
testimony regarding the beliefs of the Quartodecimans, and based on the
doctrine of the Eastern Orthodox churches today, this meal was not a
Passover, Luke 22:7, must have originally been translated as following:
'The Day of Unleavened Bread, was "COMING", when the Passover must be
Must have been translated from what? By whom? Are you implying that Luke is
translating here from a Semitic source, and that he inaccurately translates?
Why are any of the texts you cite above relevant to this gratuitous
assumption? It would do, I think, without any further help, to make your
<< If anyone is interested I have address the other few verses in the
Synoptics which without doing violence to the text, could be translated to
agree with John's passion account. >>
What does it take to "do violence" to a text?
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