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Re: [Synoptic-L] The western text of Luke - Longer or shorter?

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  • Stephen C. Carlson
    ... It should be made clear that the Western Luke is shorter is Blass s characterization, primarily due to the so-called non-interpolations, in support of
    Message 1 of 5 , Mar 6 8:44 PM
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      At 07:26 PM 3/6/2002 -0800, David Inglis wrote:
      >Thank you for confirming what I believed to be the case. However, this
      >brings up a problem. If Western Luke is shorter, how did the Western
      >Non-Interpolations ever get accepted as original? I always thought that it
      >was because they 'went against the tendency' of D, because the Western text
      >was, in general, deemed to be longer. However, if in fact Western Luke is
      >shorter, then the short version of chapter 24 (containing the Western
      >Non-Interpolations) is simply part of that trend, and should never have been
      >accepted! It appears, therefore, as though D was treated as a 'unity' from
      >a textual point of view, rather than the individual books in D being treated
      >as different.

      It should be made clear that the "Western Luke is shorter" is Blass's
      characterization, primarily due to the so-called non-interpolations,
      in support of his theories. The Western text generally is somewhat
      expansionistic or wild, which is why Westcott and Hort treated the
      non-interpolations so seriously. With the discovery of the papyri,
      particularly P75, there has been less enthusiasm in following W&H
      on the originality of the non-interpolations.

      >I also have a problem with referring to D as a whole being Western. If we
      >believe that there is a 'cause' or a particular 'process' associated with
      >any particular text-type, then we should expect to see that the differences
      >between the Western and Alexandrian versions of Luke have similar
      >characteristics to the differences between the Western and Alexandrian
      >versions of Acts. However, if in one case the 'process' results in a
      >shorter text, and in the other a longer text (as is actually the case here),
      >then surely we have to assume that they were actually created by different
      >processes. In other words, if Luke in D is 'Western', then Acts can't be,
      >and vice versa.

      D is the only extensive Greek Western witness for the Gospels and Acts.
      It is considered "Western" because it agrees with the Old Latin (pre-
      Vulgate) manuscripts and with Western fathers. "Western" is a bit of
      a misnomer because some of the Syriac versions are also considered
      Western. I've never found the notion of a text-type being the result
      of a 'process' to be a particularly helpful way of looking at text-types.
      I'd rather view each text-type as exemplifying its own lineage, i.e.
      in genealogical terms, but the majority of critics seem to define a
      text-type quantitatively (e.g. at least 70% agreement and a gap of
      10% with non-members).

      >Perhaps a better way of expressing what I'm trying to say is that D (and
      >probably other 'Western' MSS) should in fact be regarded as containing three
      >different text-types, one each for Luke, Acts, and Paul (if we include Dp).
      >There MAY have been a common process involved in creating what is called the
      >Western form of Luke, Acts, and Paul, but this common process must have only
      >been part of the story. For example, even if one particular scribe was (for
      >some reason) responsible for creating an overall 'Western' set of variants,
      >there must have also been something else to account for Luke being shorter
      >and Acts being longer. In my view that 'something else' is that variants of
      >both Luke and Acts were created BEFORE the overall 'Westernizing process
      >took place, and this is something I'm working on at the moment.

      Because each book (of the gospels) and each division of the N.T. circulated
      separately, text-types are only really commensurate with n the same book
      or division. It is not uncommon for MSS to switch text-types in different
      books (or even within books: codex Sinaiticus Aleph/01 in John is Western
      for the first few chapters, then switches to Alexandrian). Nevertheless,
      D (Codex Bezae) remains close to the Old Latins in both the Gospels and
      Acts, so it is convenient to continue to refer to D as Western whereever
      it is attested.

      As for Luke being shorter, see above. As for Acts being longer, Metzger in
      his TEXTUAL COMMENTARY surveys many theories, so that is probably the best
      place to start.

      Stephen Carlson
      --
      Stephen C. Carlson mailto:scarlson@...
      Synoptic Problem Home Page http://www.mindspring.com/~scarlson/synopt/
      "Poetry speaks of aspirations, and songs chant the words." Shujing 2.35


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    • David Inglis
      ... variants, ... shorter ... of ... Gospels ... freely ... Wieland, If I understand you correctly, most of the variants in D were created by a single person
      Message 2 of 5 , Mar 9 12:04 PM
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        --- In synoptic-l@y..., "Wieland Willker" <willker@c...> wrote:
        > David Inglis wrote:
        > >For example, even if one particular scribe was (for
        > >some reason) responsible for creating an overall 'Western' set of
        variants,
        > >there must have also been something else to account for Luke being
        shorter
        > >and Acts being longer. In my view that 'something else' is that variants
        of
        > >both Luke and Acts were created BEFORE the overall 'Westernizing process
        > >took place, and this is something I'm working on at the moment.
        >
        > The person who is responsible for the majority of variants in D was a
        > harmonizer. He added and omitted to harmonize. Besides the canonical
        Gospels
        > he had other sources at his disposal, probably a harmony, evtl. the
        > Diatessaron. This harmonizing process is probably responsible for many of
        > the omissions.
        > Since in Acts he had nothing to harmonize it with, he could work more
        freely
        > without particular reasons to omit.

        Wieland,

        If I understand you correctly, most of the variants in D were created by a
        single person ("a harmonizer. He added ..."), and presumably this took place
        no earlier than the late 2nd century, otherwise it is difficult to see how a
        Gospel harmony would have been available. However, this raises some
        questions:

        1) If a late 2nd century harmonizer created the majority of the variants in
        D, how could these same variants have been known to Polycarp and Marcion in
        the first half of the 2nd century?

        2) I don't understand your comment about Acts. I don't see why someone who
        felt free to add 10% more text to Acts would not feel free to do the same to
        the Gospels, whatever sources he had available. Also, you haven't explained
        why the harmonizer would add so much to Acts, but also REMOVE so much from
        Luke (e.g. the Western Non-Interpolations in chapter 24).

        I simply find it very difficult to understand how the Western forms of both
        Luke and Acts could possibly have been created by one person in the way you
        describe. As you sound very sure of your position, I would be interested in
        knowing what evidence you have, and how you came to these conclusions.

        Regards,

        Dave Inglis
        david@...
        3538 O'Connor Drive
        Lafayette, CA, USA



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