Re: [Synoptic-L] LXX-ism in Luke
- In a message dated 4/24/2001 2:54:59 PM Eastern Daylight Time,
<< The point in all the above is that it would be wrong to explain Luke's
wording in 5.18 as a purposeful "Septuagintalizing". It is non-LXX-al.
One may, if they want to, claim that Luke was himself and that he
accidently sounded like a post-Biblical Hebraism in a context with other
My original point, which seems to have gotten lost somewhere in the
discussion, was that Luke doesn't in fact use, in 5:18, the "expression"
ANQRWPON PARALELUMENON, but rather the very Greek periphrasis ... ANQRWPON,
hOS HN PARALELUMENOS.. What I doubt is that there is a genuine, or at least a
certain semitism here at all. I also think there could be significance in the
fact that Luke uses an expression for a paralyzed person containing a term
found in the LXX, rather than one used by Matt which is not found in LXX. I
admit that this is less significant than would be the presence of a genuine
LXX "usage", or expression in the Lukan passage. In particular, however, the
sequence and approximation of the terms LEPROS and PARALELUMENA in Lev 13:45
are interesting in light of the sequence of pericopes in Lk 5:12-26, whether
or not the second term mentioned occurs in the same type of context in the
Lev text. It supports my hypothesis that Luke routinely looks for LXX
parallels, of any kind, to a Matthean text he is reworking, and that his text
shows traces of this research. This is a slightly different point than the
question of LXX-isms in the strict sense of the term.
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