[Synoptic-L] Did Luke know Hebrew?
- Randall Buth wrote --
>Creed's claim is that Luke "never goes behind the LXX to the Hebrew text
>Creed's claim about the LXX covering all scripture quotes, allusions
>and snippets in ch. 1-2 is not true. There are NON-Septuagintal
>Hebraisms in the Lucan material of chapters 1-2. See JSNT 1984
>Buth, R, Hebrew Poetic Tenses and the Magnificat for at least two non-
>LXX's. (And there are more outside the Magnificat.)
of the Old Testament." I find nothing in the exposition of Lk 1.46b-47
in your article in JSNT to show that Luke has gone back to the MT.
I would suggest also that the present tense in Lk 1.46b followed by the
aorist tense in Lk 1.47 is not necessarily a reflection of Hebrew
poetry. The present tense in 1.46b immediately follows EIPEN -- "he
said". It is part and parcel of Luke's Greek to follow EIPEN with a verb
in the present tense, and then follow this with an aorist verb.
For instance, in Lk 2.28b-30, the Nunc Dimittis begins, "Simeon said --
EIPEN -- 'Now let depart (PRESENT tense) your servant, O Lord, according
to your word in peace, for my eyes have seen (AORIST tense) your
Again, in Lk 7.9 Jesus "said (EIPEN), 'I say (PRESENT tense) to you, I
have not found (AORIST tense) such faith in Israel...'"
And also, in Lk 10.21 Jesus "said (EIPEN), 'I thank (PRESENT tense) you,
Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that you hid (AORIST tense) these
things from the wise...'"
There are other examples of this in Luke. The pattern is
EIPEN...PRESENT...AORIST, as in Lk 1.46-47.
I would suggest there is nothing in the first two chapters of Luke which
must be regarded as having come from Hebrew material rather than from
the Greek LXX and Luke's emulation of the LXX.
E-mail; brian@... HOMEPAGE www.twonh.demon.co.uk
Rev B.E.Wilson,10 York Close,Godmanchester,Huntingdon,Cambs,PE29 2EB,UK
> "What can be said at all can be said clearly; and whereof one cannot_
> speak thereof one must be silent." Ludwig Wittgenstein, "Tractatus".
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