Re: the fundamental solution
- At 10:51 AM 5/12/98 -0500, Edgar Krentz wrote:
>>Jim Deardorff wrote (SNIP)Thanks for setting me straight on that. I had forgotten that Eph 1:7 and a
>>>How do we really know that Jesus taught "forgiveness of sins"? This
>>>could well have been the idea of Paul, successfully communicated to the
>>>early churches and hence later built into the first Gospel and thence
>>>into the subsequent Gospels.
>BRIAN WILSON gave one good answer. I would only supplementwhat he said.
>The authentic Pauline letters do not teach the forgivenss of sins. Paul
>almost alwyas uses hAMARTIA in the singular. Only 1 Cor 15 (4 times in the
>citation of a pre-pauline formula and references back to it) and Romans 4:7
>(citation of an OT passage) use sin in the plural.
>Paul regards sin as power that holds human in slavery through the NOMOS.
>You do not forgive a power; instead you rescue by bringin in a great er
>power (so Romans 6) or you redeem, i.e. buy free.
>Paul is NOT the source of the concept of the forgiveness of sins. If it is
>to be found anywhere, it is in the Jewish sacrificial system, the sin
>offering or Yom Kippur.
few other such verses in all probability do not stem from Paul.
So as I understand it now, the "God's forgiveness of mankind's sins" concept
entered into Christianity through the effect of its Jewish base upon the
writer of the first Gospel, if it did not creep into the churches from the
"OT" source earlier. But I don't seem to see it in Ignatius.
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