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[Synoptic-L] Luke 20:9-19

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  • Maluflen@aol.com
    In a message dated 2/11/2000 4:25:20 AM Eastern Standard Time, ButhFam@compuserve.com writes: [LMaluf:] (1) Luke adds a third sending (20:12a, with pempsai)
    Message 1 of 1 , Feb 12 7:18 PM
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      In a message dated 2/11/2000 4:25:20 AM Eastern Standard Time,
      ButhFam@... writes:

      [LMaluf:]
      (1) Luke adds a third "sending" (20:12a, with pempsai) prior to the sending
      of the son, and not found in Matt. Luke may be using 1 Sam19:18-24 as a
      remote OT model here, and he seems to absorb the "hebraism/septuagintalism"
      prosetheto....triton from this text (1 Sam 19:21), though the term pempsai
      remains his own.

      [RB]:
      << But Samuel LXX doesn't use triton. Samuel has a group like Matthew, not
      Luke. >>

      I had argued that Luke may be using 1 Sam 19:18-24 "as a remote model". This
      is not a serious objection to that view. The expression prosetheto...tritous
      (1 Sam 19:21) is a strange expression and it appears in only a slightly
      moderated form in Luke 20:12 as prosetheto triton.. (with no trace of the
      expression in the Matthean account). The fact that Luke reduces the
      messengers to a single individual each time is typical of the changes Luke
      routinely makes of non-essentials in a given Matthean account. Luke also
      makes three full missions before the final one of the son, and this feature
      is paralleled in the 1 Sam passage, where Saul himself goes looking for David
      after a series of three groups of messengers have failed to attain their
      objective (and turned into raving prophets). Note that in 1 Sam 19:17, David
      (Saul's "enemy"), has been "sent away", (exapesteilas) by someone protecting
      him. This "sending away", in addition to the "sending" initiated by Saul, is
      also reflected in Luke's account (twice) and not at all in Matt's. (By the
      way, I would describe exapesteilan kenon in Lk 20:11 as a typical Lukanism on
      the basis of Lk 1:53). So Luke appears to have borrowed a few structural and
      vocabulary features from the 1 Sam story, while doing his routine
      re-structuring of a passage taken over from Matthew.

      <<And Samuel doesn't use pempsai but apostelai, exactly my point.
      And Luke himiself likes apostelai as your own data for 2 Acts show below. >>

      Luke does not simply copy sources. He always uses some characteristic
      vocabulary and expressions from a source, but never copies extensively,
      except for some sayings material (and of course, except for the few cases
      when he formally cites a source). The terms apostellein and pempein appear to
      be used quite interchangeably in the NT generally (see especially Jn 20:21)
      and also by Lk himself. Lk has nothing at all against the use of pempein with
      a personal object. It occurs frequently enough elsewhere in his two-volume
      work. And there is motivation for Luke not to repeat the term apostellein
      three times in this story, precisely because Matt has done so, and Luke never
      reproduces a "structure" in the Matthean text. Notice, e.g., how Luke has
      disassembled all possible inclusions and vocabulary structures in the
      Matthean version of this story and replaced them with analogous devices of
      his own. This is standard practice, and explains much of the difference
      between the two accounts, without the need to resort to a hypothetical source
      (in addition to Matthew, and a plausible OT model, with analogous theme: in
      this case, the attempt to kill a king designate).

      <<RB: your conclusion about Luke's vocabulary
      'on this source analysis' stacks the deck.
      Look at the data: pempsai is not more spontaneous Lukan vocabulary,
      as your data below show when examined.>>

      I'll look at what you wrote below, but in the mean time it should be stated
      that pempsai is also not considerably less spontaneous Lukan vocabulary than
      apostellein.

      << Ac 19.31 sent a message, pempsai
      Ac 20.17 sent a message, pempsai>>

      Actually, pempsai in both these passages is used in the absolute, without
      direct object (except in English translation!). But this is not significant
      (cf. Acts 15:22 and 25), because Luke elsewhere uses the verb with personal
      object.

      << So in the parable, where 'agents' are in view, the thrice repeated pempsai
      is strange. It appears to be non-Lucan, and is not a Greek improvement.>>

      Not very convincing. Cf. Luke 16:24, 27; Acts 10:5; 15:25 (in addition to our
      text).

      Leonard Maluf
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