[Synoptic-L] Wright - right or wrong?
- n a message dated 10/1/1999 6:00:12 AM Eastern Daylight Time,
<< As an amateur, I wonder if I should take umbrage at your using "amateurish"
as a pejorative? <g> Mark Goodacre's evaluation was that Wright seemed to
by-pass key questions concerning the Synoptic Problem. Exactly how do you
see Wright's statement to have been "amateurish"?
>>Please.. no offense intended! My qualifier "amateurish" was intended to be
an exact lexical equivalent of Mark Goodacre's "less sophisticated". Wright,
in the passage cited, seems to assume, somewhat naively I think, that
individual Evangelists had direct access, through various currents of oral
tradition, to different forms of Jesus' utterances, based on actually
distinct occasions when Jesus said the same thing in different terms. This is
of course a theoretical possibility, but those professionally engaged with
the question of actual differences among the Synoptics have generally assumed
more plausible hypotheses, often with fairly convincing supportive evidence,
to account for the differences.