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Re: [Synoptic-L] Ending of Mark

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  • Jim Deardorff
    ... through ... Thanks, Jeff, for bringing this to my attention. Although this man was probably Jewish, that is not made definite. All AMk had to go by was
    Message 1 of 2 , Jul 11, 1999
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      At 10:13 PM 7/11/99 -0400, Jeffrey Krantz wrote:
      >
      >I've been following this thread for a bit, and am concerned that, though the
      >women do seem to be "slurred" by Mark's ending, the discussion has quite
      >forgotten the young man who announced the resurrection to them. Whether
      through
      >the women or through the young man, (whom I still take to be a Markan archetype
      >for the follower of Jesus) his first appearance as the man with many
      >possessions (10:17-22) who was Jewish makes any slander of Judaism as a whole
      >somewhat suspect. (This isn't to say that Mark is not anti-Jewish in some
      >respects only that it may be overstating it to make it too universal.) ...

      Thanks, Jeff, for bringing this to my attention. Although this man was
      probably Jewish, that is not made definite. All AMk had to go by was
      Matthew's EIS in (19:16). It seems likely to me that the reason AMk didn't
      describe him as being a gentile, or alter him into one, is that the man went
      away sorrowful. So this man did not make the cut -- why change him into a
      gentile?

      The least reversible item in this passage that indicates Mark utilized
      Matthew is that in Mark the man knelt before Jesus, while in Matthew he
      simply approached him. Also, in Mark the man calls him "Good Teacher" versus
      Matthew's "Teacher."

      Jim Deardorff
      Corvallis, Oregon
      E-mail: deardorj@...
      Home page: http://www.proaxis.com/~deardorj/index.htm
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