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66Re: a hypothesis like the Farrer one

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  • Richard H. Anderson
    Feb 18, 1998
      Jim Deardorff, greetings:
      >

      >
      > But perhaps you're overlooking some possibilities. What if Matthew >had been
      > written in Hebrew first, and only translated into Greek after Mark and >Luke
      > came out (and at that later time Mt 28:19 was fed in).

      Schleiermacher, I believe in the 1840's, proposed that Matthew was
      written in stages. If you and Schleiermacher are correct, this would
      certainly explain the tensions noted in the gospel. R. Bultmann said
      these 'tensions' (I think Bultmann was discussing a passage in the
      GJohn) was the evidence that the author used multiple sources.

      I suspect that the early followers of Jesus being all Jewish were not
      initially troubled by the entry of Gentiles as long their numbers were
      insignificant (this tokenism is evident in Acts) but that there was a
      conservative reaction that led to the imposition of restrictions at the
      Jerusalem Council and a victory for the conservative faction. The
      gospels written after that event are a reflection of that conservative
      reaction. This not only explains Acts but also the gospels. The writings
      of Paul suggest that he pulled back from his earlier views and attempted
      in Romans 9-11 a reconciliation much in the same manner as Luke's
      irenical presentation.


      Richard H. Anderson
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