One question about God's knowledge in the part two of Ethics.
I am a korean studying the philosophy of spinoza.
I have some question about the theory of causality in Spinoza.
Spinoza says, "The true idea of a thing expresses its proximate cause and conjointly the idea of God which determines the cause to produce the effect."(Treatise on the Emendation of the Intellect)
(1)But What is its proximate cause which the true idea involves?
If this would be the nature of other finite ting(=A) , the true idea of the thing should involve the nature of A. So, The idea also must involve the nature of another finite thing(=B) which is the cause of A, because of the same cause. and so ad infinitum. (Because of Ethics. Part I, Proposition 28)
Is it true?
If this is true, God should have ideas of all preceding things in the chain of causality in order to have the adequate idea of one finite thing.-for exam, the idea of human body.
But, Spinoza seems to think that NOT ideas of all preceding causes BUT the idea of the last proximate cause is enough for God to have the adequate idea of one finite thing.
(Ethics, part two, proposition 9, 19)
(2)What do you think about this?
From Seoul, Koo Jae Woo
우리 인터넷, Daum
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