Slavic Migration - not true?
- I have heard repeated several times the common eurohistorical staple that
the Slavs migrated into central Europe in the 6th century CE, having
originated somewhere around the Priapet swamps.
At risk of sounding obtuse, I ask if anyone knows of any archaeological
evidence to support the Priapet origin theory? If there can be made a
cogent argument for the Slavs simply traipsing through eastern Europe,
transiting the lands of the Goths, to settle in what history and
archaeology know to be already populated and controlled territories?
The Migration theory seems to have arisen within the last 150 years and was
largely promulgated by nationalistic interests within the German schools of
history and linguistics, aided by PanSlavism of Russia.
When German nationalism required that Slavs be seen as invaders and not
indigenes (as evidenced by toponyms throughout central Europe) and Russian
nationalism & ethnicism required that Russia be thought of as the
Fatherland of all Slavs, can a theory so central to their political agendas
hold water over time? Could it not also be better off in disuse, along
with the German theory of "Proto-Germanic" peoples being the rootstock for
central European cultures?
I am reading a very deeply-researched and extensively-footnoted book,
_VENETI_ by Jozko Savli, Matej Bor, and Ivan Tomazic, which presents in
great detail a body of evidence suggesting a much older Slavic presence in
central Europe, indeed, a Proto-Slavic culture contemporary with the
Proto-IndoEuropean one. Read about this book:
In reading it, your opinion on the Migration theory may well indeed be
changed, as was mine.
Proud to be a WEND,