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7664Re: [sig] a million rus questions

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  • Alex Grant [T]
    Jun 13, 2003
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      Three (3) replies to follow!

      > I don't know if the clothing of the original Steppes inhabitants (who may
      > have not called themselves the Rus) was inferior or not, because I can't
      > really find anything on Russian clothing before the 9th century (i.e., the
      > Northmen come to town). I can't find any records, at least not in
      > Researching the Khazars might help, but probably not much when you're
      > looking for clothing from the Kievan Rus period (10th century to 13th
      > century CE).
      > Scandinavians came in and established themselves in Russia in the 9th to
      > 10th century. That doesn't mean that the people they took over were
      > inferior. It just means that Rus culture was the most prevalent culture
      at that time-- at least as far as written and archeological records will
      > us know.


      Have you tried the Byzantine account of Svyatoslav's campaigns in the
      Balkans? It describes the clothes of the Russian warriors. Rather than
      inferior or superior, my question is: Was one style of clothing better
      suited to the social and climatic environment in Russia than the other
      style. And if so, what were the reasons for adapting a new style, and did it
      actually happen?


      > What language did they speak? It wasn't Norse, but I'd be a bit hard
      > pressed to call it "Russian."
      > Also, where does your cite for 10 or fewer loan words from Scandinavia
      come from? In what time period? From which countries?
      > Your point may be valid but you're exagerrating and playing fast and loose
      > with your factoids.


      I suspect you want to call it old Ukrainian, but it isn't so. If that's not
      the case, please disregard my statement.
      I believe in modern Russian some old Norwegian words were identified as part
      of those 10. I can find the names of linguists who have analyzed Russian for
      etimology if you really want me to; it would just take some time. But I
      researched this issue before, and I am pretty sure you won't find any info
      to contradict this.


      > When you concider the thousands of Mordvidians (Finns)and others of
      > Varengian source, that were used as slaves and hired help all over
      > Russia, it is had to believe that their clothes and language would
      > not have had some effect. Words and style are easily adapted and
      > renamed, as are myths and stories. Even some of the early Russian
      > Saints have a strange resmeblance to Norse counterparts.
      > The fact that some of these words and clothing style are not
      > directly identifiable does not deny the influence. It is like
      > saying that American Culture was little affected by the Indians.
      > Yet more than 2000 names; rivers, states, cities -- possibly the car
      > you drive carry their words. But quickly they are 'American' words
      > and most people don't even know their source.


      I don't know. Why would slaves or peasants have a reason to sew and stich
      their shirts a different way. They never see their lords stiching in front
      of them, so how would they learn a new method? And even if they did, would
      anyone dare wear one of those and be seen by his/her lord in it?
      The language is easily analyzed by linguistic experts. There is no secret
      about American Indian words in English, or Tatar words in Russian. They can
      all be traced back.

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