> I and my husband are doing research for a mid to late 16th century
> spanish persona.. . .His name will be Fransisco Martin-Jiminez.
So you've already documented "Fransisco" and "Martin-Jiminez" to your
> My name is Antonia, but I am not sure, if I would still use my fathers
> name or if I would use my husbands name,. . .
Academy of Saint Gabriel Report 2351
"We would like to note that Iberian women did not change their surnames
upon marriage; a woman generally used the same byname for her entire
life. For example, two people called <Maria Sebastian> and <Pedro
Sebastian> would more likely be brother and sister than husband and
That doesn't mean you would use your father's given name as a byname,
either, though. Both "16th Century Spanish Names"
> and Academy of Saint
Gabriel Report 1945
indicate most people in Iberia were using inherited surnames, rather
than literal bynames, by 1550. This means that in your period, if your
father's name were, say, "Blas Pizzaro", you would be more likely to be
called "Antonia Pizzaro" than "Antonia Blas".
> My other question is, if his fathers name is Martin, would it then be
"16th Century Spanish Names"
> cites examples of both
"Martín" and "Martínez" as surnames, with the former being almost twice
as common in the data, and "Spanish Names from Jaén, 1495"
> records two
instances of "Martínes" and one of "Martinez". Any of these forms
would be a reasonable choice. Again, though, it's more likely your
husband would have his father's surname than a literal patronymic
formed from his father's given name.
Barony of Bryn Gwlad
Kingdom of Ansteorra