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SV: [revelation-list] Revelation 1:10

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  • Georg S. Adamsen
    Yes, and no. I think that semantically the day of the Lord and the Lord s day may be quite similar. However, the very reason that John did not use the day
    Message 1 of 4 , Jun 5, 2002
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      Yes, and no. I think that semantically 'the day of the Lord' and 'the Lord's
      day' may be quite similar. However, the very reason that John did not use
      'the day of the Lord' (HMERA TOU KURIOU) suggests to me that he consciously
      avoided this phrase because it would be taken to mean 'the Day of YHWH'.
      Especially because the context uses some epithets which refer to the coming
      God. However, I also think that he consciously chose H KURIAKH HMERA because
      it is ambiguous. Does it refer to the Day when the Lord was raised or to the
      Lord's day, i.e. the Day where he and his Father will come (cf., e.g.,
      11,15-18)? The former might refer to the day where John received his
      vision(s); the latter might allude to what happens in the visions.

      Georg S. Adamsen
      LSTA

      > -----Oprindelig meddelelse-----
      > Fra: Ed Garcia [mailto:Ed.Garcia@...]
      > Sendt: 5. juni 2002 15.50
      > Til: revelation-list@yahoogroups.com
      > Emne: [revelation-list] Revelation 1:10
      >
      >
      > I know that this is not a translation site but please humor me.
      > But in terms
      > of translation can Revelation 1:10 be translated as "the day of
      > the Lord"? I
      > do not understand it that way myself. But just wanted some input.
      > Thank you.
      >
      > Ed
      > Kansas
      >
      >
      > To unsubscribe from this group, send an email to:
      > revelation-list-unsubscribe@yahoogroups.com
      >
      >
      >
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      >
      >
      >
    • Ed Garcia
      Thank you. Ed Kansas ... From: Georg S. Adamsen [mailto:gsa@menighedsfakultetet.dk] Sent: Wednesday, June 05, 2002 9:42 AM To: revelation-list@yahoogroups.com
      Message 2 of 4 , Jun 5, 2002
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        Thank you.

        Ed
        Kansas

        -----Original Message-----
        From: Georg S. Adamsen [mailto:gsa@...]
        Sent: Wednesday, June 05, 2002 9:42 AM
        To: revelation-list@yahoogroups.com
        Subject: SV: [revelation-list] Revelation 1:10


        Yes, and no. I think that semantically 'the day of the Lord' and 'the Lord's
        day' may be quite similar. However, the very reason that John did not use
        'the day of the Lord' (HMERA TOU KURIOU) suggests to me that he consciously
        avoided this phrase because it would be taken to mean 'the Day of YHWH'.
        Especially because the context uses some epithets which refer to the coming
        God. However, I also think that he consciously chose H KURIAKH HMERA because
        it is ambiguous. Does it refer to the Day when the Lord was raised or to the
        Lord's day, i.e. the Day where he and his Father will come (cf., e.g.,
        11,15-18)? The former might refer to the day where John received his
        vision(s); the latter might allude to what happens in the visions.

        Georg S. Adamsen
        LSTA

        > -----Oprindelig meddelelse-----
        > Fra: Ed Garcia [mailto:Ed.Garcia@...]
        > Sendt: 5. juni 2002 15.50
        > Til: revelation-list@yahoogroups.com
        > Emne: [revelation-list] Revelation 1:10
        >
        >
        > I know that this is not a translation site but please humor me.
        > But in terms
        > of translation can Revelation 1:10 be translated as "the day of
        > the Lord"? I
        > do not understand it that way myself. But just wanted some input.
        > Thank you.
        >
        > Ed
        > Kansas
        >
        >
        > To unsubscribe from this group, send an email to:
        > revelation-list-unsubscribe@yahoogroups.com
        >
        >
        >
        > Your use of Yahoo! Groups is subject to http://docs.yahoo.com/info/terms/
        >
        >
        >



        To unsubscribe from this group, send an email to:
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      • Ralph Korner
        Hi Georg, A useful article on the question of the meaning of H KURIAKH HMERA in Rev 1:10 is found in NovT 43/3 (2001) 205-23: The Use of Sunday for Meetings
        Message 3 of 4 , Jun 5, 2002
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          Hi Georg,

          A useful article on the question of the meaning of H KURIAKH HMERA in Rev
          1:10 is found in NovT 43/3 (2001) 205-23: "The Use of Sunday for Meetings of
          Believers in the New Testament" by S. R. Llewelyn. He provides a concise
          survey of the options but personally prefers seeing Rev 1:10 as a reference
          to the time when the seer had his spiritual experience, namely Sunday.

          Blessings,

          Ralph J. Korner
          Campus Pastor
          Taylor University College


          >From: "Georg S. Adamsen" <gsa@...>
          >Reply-To: revelation-list@yahoogroups.com
          >To: <revelation-list@yahoogroups.com>
          >Subject: SV: [revelation-list] Revelation 1:10
          >Date: Wed, 5 Jun 2002 16:42:06 +0200
          >
          >Yes, and no. I think that semantically 'the day of the Lord' and 'the
          >Lord's
          >day' may be quite similar. However, the very reason that John did not use
          >'the day of the Lord' (HMERA TOU KURIOU) suggests to me that he consciously
          >avoided this phrase because it would be taken to mean 'the Day of YHWH'.
          >Especially because the context uses some epithets which refer to the coming
          >God. However, I also think that he consciously chose H KURIAKH HMERA
          >because
          >it is ambiguous. Does it refer to the Day when the Lord was raised or to
          >the
          >Lord's day, i.e. the Day where he and his Father will come (cf., e.g.,
          >11,15-18)? The former might refer to the day where John received his
          >vision(s); the latter might allude to what happens in the visions.
          >
          >Georg S. Adamsen
          >LSTA
          >
          > > -----Oprindelig meddelelse-----
          > > Fra: Ed Garcia [mailto:Ed.Garcia@...]
          > > Sendt: 5. juni 2002 15.50
          > > Til: revelation-list@yahoogroups.com
          > > Emne: [revelation-list] Revelation 1:10
          > >
          > >
          > > I know that this is not a translation site but please humor me.
          > > But in terms
          > > of translation can Revelation 1:10 be translated as "the day of
          > > the Lord"? I
          > > do not understand it that way myself. But just wanted some input.
          > > Thank you.
          > >
          > > Ed
          > > Kansas
          > >
          > >
          > > To unsubscribe from this group, send an email to:
          > > revelation-list-unsubscribe@yahoogroups.com
          > >
          > >
          > >
          > > Your use of Yahoo! Groups is subject to
          >http://docs.yahoo.com/info/terms/
          > >
          > >
          > >
          >
          >
          >
          >To unsubscribe from this group, send an email to:
          >revelation-list-unsubscribe@yahoogroups.com
          >
          >
          >
          >Your use of Yahoo! Groups is subject to http://docs.yahoo.com/info/terms/
          >
          >




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