- No response from Brian to my private email, putting to him the last question I posted here :(. If anyone else can help with that Riemann equivalence, I'm all ears. Perhaps it follows trivially from the Dirichlet series for phi(n), as mentioned here:
Isee there's also a potential lead from the 1983 J. L. Nicolas proof mentioned on this page:
Here's another question.
Can anyone here confirm that the reference
Mertens, F. "Ein Beitrag zur analytischen Zahlentheorie." J. reine angew. Math. 78, 46-62, 1874
is the paper that gives the explicit proof of Mertens' Third Theorem? I got the reference from Wolfram:
but it is not directly referenced in Wolfram's discussion.
Incidentally, do you think it's just a matter of igorance that the Wolfram author writes:
"a full proof of the reversal of the inequality for terms in the Mertens theorem does not seem to appear anywhere in the published literature"? Wikipedia cites a 1983 proof by Guy Robin, and I have identified another, of 2009, by Diamond and Pintz
or perhaps the Wolfram author feels that the proofs don't bear scrutiny? Or have I misuderstood something?
With thanks in advance.