Let R = k * b^n +(b-1) where k is odd positive, b is a small prime base,

n is a larger prime number and k is restricted to be <= b^n +(b-1).

when tested against the base 'b', iff b^(R-1) ==1 (mod R), then 'R' is

prime, never a pseudo-prime number.

Bill

can anyone refute this ???