Re: [PrimeNumbers] Interesting divisor of a GF number
> Why is it that F(n) implies GF(8,n) and GF(32,n),If P divides F_n then
2^2^n = -1 (mod P)
and (2^2^n)^k = (2^k)^2^n = (-1)^k (mod P)
> while GF(32,n) or GF(8,n) does not imply F(n) ??if (2^k)^2^n = -1 (mod P) and k is odd,
you have only 1/k chance that 2^2^n = -1 (mod P).