> ? If p is a ODD prime number then the following Diophantic Equation

Proof:

> p^2+(p+k)^2=q^2 has only one solution. (p, k ,q) positive integers.

>

> k=((p-2)*p-1)/2

> q=(p^2+1)/2 ?

Rewrite the equation as p^2 = (q+(p+k)) * (q-(p+k)). We know that

q+p+k > p and that p is a prime, so q+p+k = p^2 and q-(p+k) = 1.

Peter

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[Name] Peter Kosinar [Quote] 2B | ~2B = exp(i*PI) [ICQ] 134813278