From: "leavemsg1" <leavemsg1@...>

>Forget my attempt to formalize a formula for an odd-perfect number be-

>cause by your very sigma definitions... the first perfect number of

>any even or odd number must occur at half the number of the first

>abundant number found in the list i.e. 6 is the first perfect number

>which is half of and less than 12(the first even abundant number).

>Hence, by definition... the first odd perfect number would have to

>occur before 945/2 which isn't a whole number.

Why is that so? If you have a sound argument for that idea, i.e., that the first perfect

number must occur at half of the first abundant number... then you could gain fame and

fortune instantly! The Odd Perfect's Conjecture is considered to be a hard one.

Regards. Jose Brox