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14629Re: [PrimeNumbers] theoretical question

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  • mikeoakes2@aol.com
    Mar 3, 2004
      I wrote
      >Probably, this argument can be extended, by induction, to derive the same
      >affirmative conclusion for any (finite) number of primes.

      For some reason I had not seen Jens's post, which is (a) neater and (b)
      proves the general case.
      So I am erasing my post - sorry for wasting your time.


      [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
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