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Re: [orthodox-synod] Meaning of "Lord" in Creed

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  • hermitage@infoave.net
    Dear Fr Seraphim, The word in the creed in greek is Kurion (Kurios). This appears to be mostly linked to Yehovah in the OT. The hebrew word is Yehovah (Strongs
    Message 1 of 3 , Dec 7, 2001
      Dear Fr Seraphim,

      The word in the creed in greek is Kurion (Kurios).

      This appears to be mostly linked to Yehovah in the OT. The hebrew word is
      Yehovah (Strongs 03068) and seems exclusive to the Godhead. However, it is
      allied to "kurie" in LXX, which in hebrew is Adonai (Strongs 0136) and not
      being a scholar, I cannot fully ascertain the exclusivness of this term, it
      is related to Str 0113 (adone) which is not exclusive to that use.

      These verses might be examples of difficulty in claiming invariable links
      between the greek and hebrew:

      Genesis 18:12 LXX has kurios in that verse. Corresponding to Hebrew Str 0113
      adone.

      And in Numbers 10:36, the LXX has kurie, and the Hebrew Str 03068, Yehovah.

      No doubt there are other examples of crossovers, and I don't have time to go
      through the hundreds of citings my program pulled up. Strangely enough, it
      appears that the english AV might prove the most consistent word-wise in
      this instance (strange considering its penchant for "elegant variations"
      elsewhere) since its translators were careful to make distinctions (whether
      by cap letters, or by translating 03068 or 0136 as Lord GOD) based on
      context.-(btw my bible program claims 03068 as exclusive to God and I can
      find no exceptions in the hebrew---the problem arises with the greek) It is
      probably safe to assume notwithstanding the possible inconsistencies between
      the Greek and Hebrew word associations, that readers in times past could
      also easily make the distinctions by context.

      So, in short, you may encounter some difficulty discoursing on the
      *linguistic* associations in an invariable and absolute sense, and might
      need to approach it from another angle. Again, keep in mind I am no expert
      in this matter and my comments are largely a shot in the dark based on a
      very cursory reading of topical information.

      In Christ,
      John, monk





      At 10:18 AM 12/7/2001 -0600, you wrote:
      >I am creating materials about the Symbol of faith for my catechumens ( in
      >my spare time, not), and am covering the articles of the creed dealing
      >with Jesus Christ. I create questions and answers and discusss them when we
      >get together Saturday. I want to discuss the word "Lord".
      >
      >Here is one question:
      >
      ><QUESTION>
      >I believe:
      >2. ... in one Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God, the only begotten,
      >begotten of the Father before all ages ...
      >
      >What does the name "Jesus Christ" mean, and how do the meanings of each
      >name indicate a dogma concerning Him?
      >
      ><ANSWER>
      >"Jesus" is the Greek form of the Hebrew name Joshua, "Saviour".
      >"Christ" means anointed and is the Greek translation of the Hebrew word
      >rendered "Messiah".
      >
      >Only God can save mankind from sin and death, hence, "Jesus", "Saviour"
      >denotes both Jesus' mission and His Divinity.
      >
      >IN ancient times before Christ, the prophets, high priests, and kings were
      >anointed with oils upon the assumption of their office, in order to receive
      >the necessary gifts of the Holy Spirit for their calling. Our Saviors is
      >also called "Christ", "Anointed" to declare his human physical nature,
      >which had the fulness of the gifts of the Holy Spirit.
      >
      >The name "Jesus Christ", therefore, proclaims the dual nature of Our Lord.
      >He is both God and man.
      >
      >"For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell;" (Col
      >1:19)
      >
      >In line with the above question, in another question, I wanted to
      >tie "Lord" to the OT prophesies, if indeed "Lord" in the creed can only
      >refer to God. In English usage, of course, "Lord" may also be used in a
      >sense that does not refer to God.
      >
      >What is the Grrek for "Lord" in the creed, and is this a word that can be
      >tied to the OT in a sense that only refers to God?
      >
      >
      >
      >
      >
      >
      >
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      >
      >
      >
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      >
      >
      >
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