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Re: Examples of Scriptural Hyperbole

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  • Athanasios Jayne
    ... Well, I took this statement to mean that Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob were *sinless,* and I am not presently aware of this being a teaching of Orthodoxy, so I
    Message 1 of 13 , Feb 15, 2007
      --- In orthodox-synod@yahoogroups.com, "G. B." <barabtarlog@...> wrote:
      >
      > >"... the righteous, for Abraham
      > >and Isaac and Jacob, who have not sinned against
      > >Thee..."
      > >
      >
      > Why should it be a hyperbole? The last two words indicate that the
      > forefathers's hearts were never turned against God; they never did
      > the abomination of worshipping other gods - and are therefore
      > righteous.
      >
      > R.G.

      Well, I took this statement to mean that Abraham,
      Isaac, and Jacob were *sinless,* and I am not
      presently aware of this being a teaching of Orthodoxy,
      so I concluded that it must be a hyperbolic statement,
      not to be taken literally. The statement does not
      by context appear to qualify or limit their sinlessness
      to mean the avoidance of idolatry (so far as I can see).
      It is an absolute and unqualified statement: they did
      not sin against God--period. It is either literally true,
      or it is a hyperbolic statement, IMO.

      Athanasios.
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