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Re: [orthodox-synod] Re: Former OCA clergy will they be accepted in the Moscow Patriarchate

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  • DDD
    Michael Nikitin wrote: Would going to confession make one more worthy to partake of Holy Communion?   When is one ever worthy to partake of the Holy
    Message 1 of 52 , Jun 5, 2006
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      "Michael Nikitin" wrote:

      Would going to confession make one more worthy to partake of Holy Communion?

      � When is one ever worthy to partake of the Holy Mysteries? I feel I am never
      � worthy.

      � I don't believe our clergy mock or abuse confession, because they don't go
      � to confessio n each time they partake of the Holy Mysteries.
      _______________________________________________________________________

      Though one may never be "worthy" in the absolute sense, of course confessing one's sins makes one *more* worthy to partake of Holy Communion. It is a given that preparation for receiving the Body and Blood of Christ involves repentance for one's sins. And the way we repent is to confess our sins.

      However, that is not even what I was pointing out, and which you are trying to get around: HTC (and maybe Brookline in general) has the practice of *group absolution,* where the people do NOT *confess* their sins to the priest but the priest still gives the *absolution*. That is abuse and a mockery of confession. In this way, it is possible to receive Communion for a very long time without ever confessing one's sins. One may not ever be completely worthy, even *with* confession, but *without* confession of sins, one is simply ignoring one's sins and becoming liable to condemnation.

      I stand my ground on this--the Brookline practice of giving absolution without confession of sins is an aberration and an abuse.

      See further: St. Innocent of Moscow: "What is Necessary for a Saving Confession?" Step 4: "4) It is necessary to reveal your sins properly and without any concealment. Some say, "For what reason should I reveal my sins to Him Who knows all of our secrets?" Certainly God knows all of our sins, but the **Church, which has the power from God to forgive and absolve sins, cannot know them, and for this reason She cannot, without confession, pronounce Her absolution." ** (emphasis mine)
      http://www.orthodoxinfo.com/praxis/confession.aspx

      and, from the wonderful book by Archimandrite Seraphim Aleksiev "The Forgotten Medicine: The Mystery of Repentance":

      "A further objection is why bother going when you are only going to have the prayer of absolution read to you, and not to truly confess. This is a sacrilegious abuse of Confession, and the priest himself must take the responsibility of refusing to read the prayer of absolution.... We cannot receive absolution unless we openly confess our sins. "

      Can anything be clearer?

      --Dimitra
    • myhrr101
      I ve just found this on a chronological list of RCC doctrines: AD 1215 - Auricular confession of sins to a priest, instead of to G-d, is instituted by
      Message 52 of 52 , Jun 27, 2006
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        I've just found this on a chronological list of RCC doctrines:

        AD 1215 - Auricular confession of sins to a priest, instead of to
        G-d, is instituted by Innocent III in the Lateran Council

        Will have a look at the council tomorrow, there could be an
        explanation of it.

        Myrrh



        --- In orthodox-synod@yahoogroups.com, "myhrr101" <myhrr101@...>
        wrote:
        >
        > --- In orthodox-synod@yahoogroups.com, "Archpriest David Moser"
        > <moserd@> wrote:
        > >
        > > --- In orthodox-synod@yahoogroups.com, "myhrr101" <myhrr101@>
        > wrote:
        > >
        > > > There appears a squiggly line running through the history of
        the
        > > > Church in which bunches of bishops decide all kinds of stuff
        > beyond their remit - isn't the insistence of confession before
        > communion one such example? Like the spoon feeding idea.
        > >
        >
        > > I disagree with this premise. No matter to origin of our
        > traditions, they have been adopted by the Church as a recognized
        > part of Tradition. No one condemns the practice of confession
        > before every communion, but neither is it required - it is
        accepted
        > by the whole Church as a legitimate working out of the Faith. The
        > use of the spoon for giving the mysteries has an even wider
        > acceptance as the "standard practice" although again there are
        > exceptions (the communion of the clergy or the liturgy of St James
        > for two examples). The point is the Church has embraced these
        > practices as true and faithful expressions of Holy Tradition.
        Thus
        > I find that it is not profitable to try and find excuses to
        > denigrate our tradition by criticizing where it came from (the
        same
        > thing applies to the complaint by some that the Russian Church was
        > somehow tainted or infected with Roman practices born of Roman
        > theology. One could just as easily say that the Byzantine Church,
        > the Ante-Nicene Church in fact, was "tainted" and "infected" with
        > the ideas of classical Greek philosophy and so the writings of
        > > such luminaries as the Cappadocian fathers (Basil the Great,
        > Gregory the Theologian, Gregory Nanzianzen) and St John Chrysostom
        > must be examined by us to makes sure that they are truly
        Orthodox.
        > Nonsense!
        > >
        >
        >
        > Don't hold back on account of me, I enjoy a good rant, but you've
        > just rubber stamped such accepted usage as papal supremacy so
        you'll
        > have to excuse me but I reject the premise that the Holy Spirit
        > leads to such truth where 'ignorance' and 'might is right' are
        > included as guiding principles for the Church.
        >
        > One can argue that all canons are uncanonical which break Christ's
        > rule "It shall not be so among you" in their creation. I assume
        some
        > arose out of "sobornost", but for the most part the rules and regs
        > have been imposed from above and certainly there's no intrinsic
        > respect due to any which are contrary to authentic tradition in
        Holy
        > Tradition, such as the canon which rules against married bishops,
        or
        > to the particular bunch of celibate bishops who devised the rule,
        no
        > matter how long it's been an established practice or how
        > successfully objection is put down by admonition for lack of piety
        > or deflected by accusations that questioning such practices is
        > denigrating the Orthodox Church.
        >
        > But I think you've just cracked the ecumenist's problem in
        > establishing one Church.
        >
        > The Development of Doctrinites are really saying the same thing as
        > the Organic Growthines, it's only ever been a problem of semantics
        > and so of course anything goes as long as it can be enforced or
        made
        > to stick long enough. Well, pass the popcorn, are you sitting
        > comfortably? then let's watch the organic development in the
        Battle
        > of the Bishops for Supreme Authority in the Universal Church.
        >
        > Does the anarchic fold Christ put in place still exist anywhere?
        > Thank God with us for the bishop who still dares teach that Christ
        > is the supreme authority in the Church.
        >
        > Now, I've read somewhere that the spoon feeding came into general
        > use in the 10th century, but I can't find anything more detailed
        > about it, any ideas where to look? By the time of the Council of
        > Trent communion of one species only for the masses was already
        > established in the West - are these two ideas, spoon feeding and
        > separation of clergy from laity in communion, connected somehow?
        In
        > the minutes of the council there's a long eulogy on the sacred
        > wonder of communing in both species followed by an amusing list of
        > excuses for forbidding full communion to the oiks. I don't know
        > which is sadder, the bishops who contrived this for themselves or
        > the laity I've heard piously defending enthralment to the practice.
        >
        >
        >
        >
        >
        > > But enough of the tirade, on to the question:
        > >
        > > >how does this differ from the other Orthodox
        > > > churches?:
        > > >
        > > > "In the Slavic ritual a Latin-inspired and juridical form of
        > > > personal absolution was introduced by Peter Mogila,
        metropolitan
        > of
        > > > Kiev (17th century)."
        > >
        > > The difference lies in the prayers of absolution said by the
        > > priest/confessor over the repentant person. In the Russian
        > tradition the final prayer contains the statement, "and I an
        > unworthy priest through the power given me do forgive and absolve
        > the servant of God..." To some people this formula is too
        Catholic
        > in that it implies that the priest is doing the forgiving instead
        of
        > God - but that would completely ignore the phrase, "through the
        > power given me" which makes it clear that the priest is only
        acting
        > as the minister of the sacrament of forgiveness - not its source.
        >
        >
        > Doesn't make it clear at all, the immediate source is the
        difference
        > between Orthodox and Latin form of absolution and in the Latin use
        > the immediate source is the priest which is what these
        words "Power
        > given me" say, the personal power of that priest. And in the Latin
        > church there are particular concepts attached to this.
        >
        >
        > For a start this page gives a general idea of the differences;
        > http://www.reference.com/browse/wiki/Confession
        >
        >
        >
        > It says of the RCC:
        >
        > "Catholics believe that no priest, as an individual man, however
        > pious or learned, has power to forgive sins. This power belongs to
        > God alone; however, God can and does exercise it through the
        > Catholic priesthood. Catholics believe God exercises the power of
        > forgiveness by means of the sacrament of reconciliation.
        >
        > The basic form of confession has not changed for centuries,
        although
        > at one time confessions were made publicly. Colloquially speaking,
        > the role of the priest is of a judge and jury; in theological
        terms,
        > he acts in persona Christi and receives from the Church the power
        of
        > jurisdiction over the penitent. ......
        >
        > Absolution in the Roman rite takes this form:
        >
        > God the Father of mercies, through the death and resurrection of
        his
        > Son, has reconciled the world to himself and sent the Holy Spirit
        > among us for the forgiveness of sins; through the ministry of the
        > Church may God give you pardon and peace, and I absolve you from
        > your sins in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the
        Holy
        > Spirit.
        >
        > The essential words, however, are "I absolve you.""
        >
        >
        > It says of the Orthodox:
        >
        > "The Eastern Orthodox sacrament of confession, or repentance,
        > includes prayer to God and confessing ones sins to God, typically
        in
        > the presence of an icon of Jesus Christ and also with a priest
        > nearby to bear witness. The priest will typically add his own
        > prayers, may add counsel or assign some form of penance, and will
        > usually announce God's forgiveness of sins. In Orthodox
        > ecclesiology, the priest is not an intermediary between God and
        the
        > penitent. The confession is to God in the presence of a priest,
        not
        > to a priest in the presence of God."
        >
        >
        >
        > Utterly different from each other, the one based on the premise
        that
        > Christ is absent and the other that Christ is present. What does
        it
        > mean then when the Orthodox use the latin form? How does it affect
        > the users of this service?
        >
        > Myrrh
        >
        >
        >
        >
        > And again, both forms of the sacramental formula - Greek and
        > Russian - are accepted by the whole Church.
        > >
        > > Archpr David Moser
        > > St Seraphim of Sarov Orthodox Church (ROCOR)
        > >
        >
        > If by "whole" Church you mean the Orthodox, why?
        >
        >
        > Myrrh
        >
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