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[orthodox-synod] Re: Iakovos vs. James

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  • Robert Miller
    When I was in R.C. seminary many years ago, the Latin professor taught that Jacobus = James. A linguistics professor friend yesterday pointed out that James in
    Message 1 of 6 , Jan 5, 2000
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      When I was in R.C. seminary many years ago, the Latin professor taught that
      Jacobus = James.
      A linguistics professor friend yesterday pointed out that James in Spanish
      is Diego, rather a different word from any of those other names proposed.
      It appears that Fr Gregory's hypotheses may be correct, or may not.

      Jos M

      ----------
      > From: Rev. John R. Shaw <vrevjrs@...>
      > To: orthodox-synod@egroups.com
      > Subject: [orthodox-synod] Re: Iakovos vs. James
      > Date: Wednesday, January 05, 2000 2:58 PM
      >
      > I haven't had time to dig into the actual stages of its linguistic
      > transformation, but the name James *was* used prior to the KJ Bible as
      > the English equivalent of "Jacobus". Thus I have xerox-from-microfilm
      > copy of the Sarum Primer in English, printed in the rule of King Henry
      > VIII. In that, there is a section giving Epistles and Gospels for most
      > Sundays and feasts, and it heads those from "Epistula Jacobi" as "from
      > the Epistle of St. James".
      >
      > Fr. John R. Shaw
    • LJames6034@aol.com
      For several hundred years, people have been walking from France into Spain. For what reason? They were on pilgrimage to Santiago d Capostello, where the body
      Message 2 of 6 , Jan 6, 2000
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        For several hundred years, people have been walking from France into Spain.
        For what reason? They were on pilgrimage to Santiago d' Capostello, where
        the body of St. James is alleged to be buried. St. Iago?

        King James VI and I was baptized in the Roman Church, by his mother, Mary,
        Queen of Scots, doubtless the priest used Latin, so that the baby prince was
        probably called "Jacobus." If so, he was the 6th Jacobus to reign over the
        Scots. His son James VII and II was the last James to rule over the Scots or
        the English. His son, James VIII and III was only de jure, not de facto, king
        of Scots and of Great Britain. The de facto king was George I.

        A Welshman with the family name James has the name, because, in Welsh, an
        "es" ending indicates someone's daughter's son. Hence, there are so many
        Joneses, because Jones really means: "Jon's daughter's son." Think about
        it. Which of you did not have an Uncle John?

        "James," for a Welshman, means "Camb's daughter's son." Cambria? That is
        what the Romans called Cyru, which, in Welsh, means: "Countrymen." That
        is the same people the Saxons called "Waelsa," which is Saxon for
        "foreigner," or perhaps "translator into Latin." The Welsh were a
        thoroughly Latinized people. Indeed, some Welsh historians say the Roman
        Emperor Magnus Maximus was the "Father of Wales."

        Pardon me for thinking that the whole discussion centres around a problem of
        "ethnocentricism," which, like racism, is a form of insanity. But, it is
        a form of madness with which the Orthodox Church (as a whole) is rife.


        Father Andrew (Laurence J. James, Ph.D., knyaz)
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