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RE: [norse_course] Njall 116 part 2 / Alan's Translation

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  • AThompson
    Here´s my translation. The underlined text, in particular is still causing me some grief. I seem to have a slightly different take on ‘og numið til annars
    Message 1 of 3 , Oct 1, 2008
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    • llama_nom
      ... if (it) is badly (done). I believe that s right. According to proverbs page, `lofa appears as a manuscript variant for `leyfa [
      Message 2 of 3 , Oct 4, 2008
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        > þá mun sjálft leyfa sig, mun og sjálft lasta sig ef illa er.
        > (it) itself will praise itself and (it) itself (will) blame itself
        if (it) is badly (done).

        I believe that's right. According to proverbs page, `lofa' appears as
        a manuscript variant for `leyfa' [
        http://www.usask.ca/english/icelanders/proverbs_BNS.html ]. I suppose
        it's like the English expression: it will speak for itself. Aha, I
        see MM and HP used that very phrase:

        MM & HP: "If you are being sincere with me and your motives are good
        they will speak for themselves, and condemn themselves if they are evil."

        Cook: "If you mean well, your deeds will praise themselves, but if you
        mean evil, they will be self-condemning."

        Singer: "Es wird sich selbst loben, wenn es gut ist, und es wird sich
        selbst tadeln, wenn es schlecht is."

        > Hildigunnur hló að kaldahlátur þann

        The noun `kaldahlátur' is here a cognate object [
        http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cognate_object ], which is a special
        instance of what Faarlund calls the lexical accusative (Jan Terje
        Faarlund: The Syntax of Old Norse 2004, § 8.4.1, ii, p. 141), used as
        an adjunct, as in: `hjó hann banahögg' "dealt him his deathblow", and
        `lýstr hana kinnhest' "struck her a blow on the cheek." On various
        uses of the accusative, see also Faarlund 2004, § 8.5.1, i, pp.
        168-170. Some more examples of the expression `að hlæja kaldahlátur'
        here: [
        http://www2.lexis.hi.is/cgi-bin/ritmal/leitord.cgi?adg=daemi&n=246259&s=296255&l=kaldahl%E1tur
        ].

        > og var það raufar einar og numið til annars endans.
        > and that was all-in-rags (see under rauf, Z) and (the rent/ tear)
        extended (reached) (see under nema, Z3) to the other end.

        I don't want to be too dogmatic about my interpretation (I could be
        mistaken), but if the tear extended (from one end) to "the other end",
        wouldn't that make it into two bits of cloth? And wouldn't we first
        have to have heard something about "one end", for it to make sense to
        mention "the other"? I notice there are a few translations of this
        passage online which agree with MM & HP, but I don't know how
        independent they are.

        > veita til þeirra sætta

        The recipient with `veita' is normally dative, so I think "offer such
        settlements (as...)" rather than "offer *them* settlements such as..."
        (Of course, "them" would still be implied.) Compare the following
        examples. In the first two, the thing being offered is expressed in
        the genitive after `til' (as, if I've understood it correctly, in our
        example), in the last two the thing being offered is accusative
        without `til'. But in all of them, the recipient is dative.

        (1) þat er hún má veita yðr til hjálpar
        "what help she can give you"
        "that which she can give you by way of help"

        (2) veitti hann þurföndum ok til útlausnar herteknum mönnum
        "he gave to the poor and for the freeing of captives of war"

        (3) Vil ek bjóðask til at veita þér aðra boen í móti.
        "I wish to offer to give you another recompense in return"

        (4) þá hefi ek eigi lund til at veita honum atgöngu
        "then I have no mind to attack him"
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