Re: [neoplatonism] Procession in Commentary on Parmenides
> SO IS 'PROCESSION' NOT THE RIGHT TRANSLATION FOR PARODOS IN THEM.C. The fragments of the In Parm don't strike me as particularly
> IN pARM? BECHTLE ALSO USES IT, AND IT DOES NOT SEEM UNNATURAL, BUT IT
> MAY BE THAT WE SHOULD BE CHOOSING A TERM THAT WILL DIFFERENTIATE IT
> But which would Porphyry use, one or the other or both?
> Or does it matter much either way?
> DOES THE TYPE OF TEXT MAKE A DIFFERENCE? THE MATHEMATICAL FLAVOUR OF
> THE PARMENIDES INVITES MATHEMATICAL LANGUAGE, AND OF 688 CASES OF
> IN 2ND CENTURY 517 ARE PTOLEMY, WHILE OF THE 1063 IN THE FOURTH
> 500 ARE THEON. BUT I'M NOT LOOKING UP ALL THE REFERENCES!
mathematical, but then again, all we have are fragments. For the
Chaldaean-influenced Porphyry the astronomico-astrological meaning of
the term might also be relevant (LSJ A b : "rotation of
>I think Michael is onto something.
> Best, Mike.
Parodos is used most typically in astrological texts (e.g. Valens) as a word
that could be translated in modern astrology as "transit". This occurs when
a planet at a given time, either falls in the same sign as a planet or place
in the natal chart or in a sign geometrically related to it (opposite,
trine, quadrangle, sextile). (This is not to be confused with the modern
*astronomical* use of the term "transit" to indicate Mercury or Venus
appearing to pass over the surface of the Sun). Ptolemy seems to use this
term in his astronomical work to mean more generally the motions of the
planets (e. g. Syntax. 1, 1.29.11). In his Apotelesmatics, parados covers
the motions of both planets and fixed stars (including the diurnal motion,
18.104.22.168, and including latitude as well as longitude).
Dennis, you originally posed the question, "Is the use of parodos of any
significance in attributing authorship to the Commentary on Parmenides?"
To answer this, ask how much, in the mind of Porphyry, are the gods (and
what proceeds from them) in his commentary on Parm. equal to, like, or
represented by the planets? In his Quaestionum Homericarum he uses Parados
in the astronomical sense - the sun's procession (8.1.21). In his
commentary on Ptolemy's Harmonica, he uses it again in an astrological
context (24.13). If we accept his Introduction to the Tetrabiblos to be
genuine (although most of it of course is copied directly from Antiochus,
with the last chapters added on later), parados is used again to mean
transits of the planets.
- --- Marilynn Lawrence <pronoia@...> wrote:
> Parodos is used most typically in astrological textsThere can be other cosmic implications of "parodos"
> (e.g. Valens) as a word
> that could be translated in modern astrology as
> "transit". This occurs when
> a planet at a given time, either falls in the same
> sign as a planet or place
> in the natal chart or in a sign geometrically
> related to it (opposite,
> trine, quadrangle, sextile).
also, but this time in relation to the elements.
Olympiodorus commenting on Phaedo 62(I'm going to
check the reference later, I'm sorry), identifies
"prohodos" with the goddess Hera (who in other sources
is related to "Air"), and on the other hand
"epistrophe", with Zeus, because of his
ray and fire help the ascent and return.
The horizontal dimension of the expansion of air is
related to parodos, and the vertical dimension of
epistrophe is symbolised with fire.
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