Your student's perception is impressive, but one hardly needs the Tale of
Years to verify the coinciding of the times. Three paragraphs after Sam's
request, he points out that the wind now _has_ changed (which is the
physical cause of the darkness breaking up - the "Meteorologist" is not
wrong) and that the darkness is going; and Tolkien immediately follows this
by tying the events to the chronology of the other story: "It was the
morning of the fifteenth of March, and over the Vale of Anduin the Sun was
rising above the eastern shadow, and the south-west wind was
blowing. Theoden lay dying in the Pelennor Fields."
But it's the previous evening, I think, that Ghan-buri-ghan senses the same
thing, and his final words to Theoden and Eomer are "Wind is changing!"
(Book 5, chapter 5) Before the end of the chapter, a rider named Widfara
remarks that he too can sense it, and then Merry does also. This is
evidently still before evidence of the change reaches Sam much further
east, because the battle (not yet begun when Merry feels the wind) begins
around daybreak and goes on for some time before Theoden is attacked, which
is what's going on when Sam speaks in the morning. (cf "Day was coming
again in the world outside," a few paragraphs earlier in Book 6 chapter 2)
As far as these events are concerned, the wind is merely symbolic and
heartening (to the good guys) and disheartening (to the bad) - as the
darkness, apart from making it hard to see, is a spiritual not a physical
attack - but it does also have one important practical effect: this is the
same wind that brings Aragorn's ships up the Anduin. Gimli (in chapter 9)
reports: "But at midnight hope was indeed born anew. Sea-crafty men of the
Ethir gazing southward spoke of a change coming with a fresh wind from the
Sea. Long ere day the masted ships hoisted sail; and our speed grew, until
dawn whitened the foam at our prows."
So the change in the wind is not a direct and immediate result of Galadriel
monitoring Sam's wishes (which would be a cheap, mechanistic, and very
un-Tolkienian way of proceeding), but had already begun though he didn't
know it. It need not be supernatural for Sam to wish for daylight just
before it comes; is it so for Legolas to tell Gimli not to give up hope,
not long before the wind changes on the river? Foresight, and hopes
fulfilled, are constant themes in Tolkien, and they're not matters of
sneaking a peek ahead a few pages in the Book of Life.
You speak of the sunbreak as a "providential coincidence" as if that were a
criticism. But how is that so? "Providential" is exactly what it is, and
you don't need me to tell you the role of Providence in Tolkien, and what
it meant for him, and what he thought Providence actually was. (Why do you
think Roger Williams used that word as the name of his city?) The
difference between Tolkien and lesser writers is that they don't believe,
or don't really believe, in Providence, and use the term as excuse to sail
over plot difficulties; whereas Tolkien does really believe, and part of
the story's moral purpose is to illustrate the role that Providence pays in
human affairs: this is hardly the only instance.
- David Bratman
At 11:54 PM 4/12/2003 -0400, Susan wrote:
>When I taught my Tolkien course this past fall, we speculated about why the
>sun comes out so fortuitously at the end of the "Ride of the Rohirrim"
>chapter in RotK, thereby conveniently scattering the hosts of Mordor. Even
>for Tolkien, the providential coincidence seems a bit thick. But then one of
>my students -- very impressively, I thought -- connected this event to Sam's
>prayer to Galadriel for "clean water and plain daylight" in "The Land of
>Shadow" chapter. She points out that the Tale of Years' entry for March 15
>suggests that the two things happen at the same time; in other words, because
>Sam prays for sunlight in Mordor, the sun comes out for the Rohirrim, too.
>(Another student, before this particular theory was raised, had come up with
>a jaw-droppingly complex explanation having to do with weather and
>thermoclines and what the winds would have been doing based on some
>description of weather *before* "The Ride of the Rohirrim." This earned him
>the designation "The Meteorologist of Middle Earth," a nickname he may never
>Anyway, I love her theory, and comparing the two passages, it looks as if the
>timing could fit. Has anyone else noticed this or commented upon it? Is
>this something that every other Tolkien expert knows?