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Re: [mythsoc] Tolkien "Aryan" response letters

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  • WendellWag@aol.com
    In a message dated 8/19/2007 4:07:00 P.M. Eastern Daylight Time, aveeris523@aol.com writes: In The Letters of J.R.R. Tolkien , numbers 29 and 30 concern the
    Message 1 of 2 , Aug 19, 2007
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      In a message dated 8/19/2007 4:07:00 P.M. Eastern Daylight Time,
      aveeris523@... writes:

      In "The Letters of J.R.R. Tolkien", numbers 29 and 30 concern the
      publishing of "The Hobbit" in 1938 Germany, and the apparent request
      by the German publisher as to whether Prof. Tolkien was "aryan". Did
      the letter from Germany survive? I have been curious about what was in
      it and how they phrased their inquiry. I thought the Professor's
      response was brilliant!

      I don't know the answer to this question, but another question occurs to me.
      Were German publishers at this time asking all British authors who they
      were considering translating into German and publishing if they were Aryan, or
      was this something that only a few of them, like Tolkien, were asked? I
      wonder if they looked at Tolkien's name and said, "Hmm, German name, but he's
      British. He could be Jewish." This would be a semi-plausible guess to make,
      since Ashkenazi Jews in the U.K. tend to have German names. Not a wholly
      plausible guess perhaps, since Tolkien isn't a typical Jewish name, but at least

      Wendell Wagner

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