Re: Psalm one verbs
- --- In email@example.com, "jerry.reimer" <Jerry@...> wrote:
> In Psalm one, LXX, there are three aorist tense verbs.True...
> If I have it??? Every verb in Greek has tense, mood and voice. You gave at most
> right, the first one is aorist passive; the second one is aorist
> middle; the third one is aorist active.
two for each verb, and not the same two for each.
>All three Hebrew verbs are perfect tense forms.True. And none are in "waw-consecutive", so the perfect tenses really
mean what they seem to mean. Yes, I learned Hebrew grammar from an
old-fashioned source, one that describes this construction as changing
the meaning of the aspect;)
> Could someone explain the LXX (voice) variety rationale of the firstAnother member has already corrected the assertion that the 2nd verb
> two Greek verbs given the fact that there is an aorist middle form
> for the passive aorist verb and an active form for the middle voice
> aorist verb.
is a middle. It only (sort of) looks like one because it is a 2nd
aorist of a -MI verb. But you can confirm that it is 2nd aorist by
using the morphological look up tool at Perseus, or one of its mirrors
(I usually use the Berlin mirror -- but today both are behaving
Actually, it is the first verb, EPOREUQH from POREUW that looks like a
middle/passive (because of the Q). But the middle of this verb _is_
frequently used as if a deponent, as described in entry A.II.2 in LSJ.
To be more precise, the middle/passive is translated into English as
'go', 'march' etc. but the active is "to _make_ or _cause_ to go" or
'carry'. But in Hebrew this distinction would have been made not by
changing from active to passive voice, but by changing from Qal to
In fact, this precise same form of the same verb occurs in Mat 12:1,
where you can use www.blueletterbible.org to confirm the mophological
parse. But for some reason, they refer to this as "passive
deponent", even though the active does occur. But this is a small
difference in terminology.
> The active voice aorist verb seems to be the only one thatBut they are all active (or equivalent, thanks to deponency)
> corresponds to the Hebrew text.
indicative aorist, so they all correspond pretty closely.
> If the three Hebrew verbs are to be understood as simple past orRiddle solved now?
> even if the three Hebrew verbs are gnomic and the aorist tense verbs
> in the LXX are also gnomic the voice is a riddle to me.