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Re: Psalm one verbs

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  • Matthew Johnson
    ... True... ... ??? Every verb in Greek has tense, mood and voice. You gave at most two for each verb, and not the same two for each. ... True. And none are in
    Message 1 of 5 , Jan 18, 2008
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      --- In lxx@yahoogroups.com, "jerry.reimer" <Jerry@...> wrote:

      > In Psalm one, LXX, there are three aorist tense verbs.

      True...

      > If I have it
      > right, the first one is aorist passive; the second one is aorist
      > middle; the third one is aorist active.

      ??? Every verb in Greek has tense, mood and voice. You gave at most
      two for each verb, and not the same two for each.

      >All three Hebrew verbs are perfect tense forms.

      True. And none are in "waw-consecutive", so the perfect tenses really
      mean what they seem to mean. Yes, I learned Hebrew grammar from an
      old-fashioned source, one that describes this construction as changing
      the meaning of the aspect;)

      > Could someone explain the LXX (voice) variety rationale of the first
      > two Greek verbs given the fact that there is an aorist middle form
      > for the passive aorist verb and an active form for the middle voice
      > aorist verb.

      Another member has already corrected the assertion that the 2nd verb
      is a middle. It only (sort of) looks like one because it is a 2nd
      aorist of a -MI verb. But you can confirm that it is 2nd aorist by
      using the morphological look up tool at Perseus, or one of its mirrors
      (I usually use the Berlin mirror -- but today both are behaving
      badly).

      Actually, it is the first verb, EPOREUQH from POREUW that looks like a
      middle/passive (because of the Q). But the middle of this verb _is_
      frequently used as if a deponent, as described in entry A.II.2 in LSJ.

      To be more precise, the middle/passive is translated into English as
      'go', 'march' etc. but the active is "to _make_ or _cause_ to go" or
      'carry'. But in Hebrew this distinction would have been made not by
      changing from active to passive voice, but by changing from Qal to
      Hiphil.

      In fact, this precise same form of the same verb occurs in Mat 12:1,
      where you can use www.blueletterbible.org to confirm the mophological
      parse. But for some reason, they refer to this as "passive
      deponent", even though the active does occur. But this is a small
      difference in terminology.

      > The active voice aorist verb seems to be the only one that
      > corresponds to the Hebrew text.

      But they are all active (or equivalent, thanks to deponency)
      indicative aorist, so they all correspond pretty closely.

      > If the three Hebrew verbs are to be understood as simple past or
      > even if the three Hebrew verbs are gnomic and the aorist tense verbs
      > in the LXX are also gnomic the voice is a riddle to me.

      Riddle solved now?
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