Loading ...
Sorry, an error occurred while loading the content.

3rd Century Parthenos

Expand Messages
  • Sandberg Family
    What did the 3rd century Jewish writers really have in mind when they translated from Hebrew to the Greek 2nd declension feminine noun parthenos in the LXX. I
    Message 1 of 2 , Sep 6, 2000
    • 0 Attachment
      What did the 3rd century Jewish writers really have in mind when they translated from Hebrew to the Greek 2nd declension feminine noun parthenos in the LXX. I have come across great conflict in discussion over the whole idea of “virgin”. Some Orthodox sides say Almah Ayin, lamed, mem, he means only young woman, maiden, damsel. If one was to convey the true meaning of a virgin as in “without sexual interaction” the word bethulah for virgin spelled bet, taw, waw, lamed, he would have been used in the Hebrew text. So I’m told. What I get from it all is the accusation that the word almah is mistranslated in order to support a theological doctrine as toward divine conception. As i'm told, it is easier for an unmarried young woman to be with child than for a virgin. If a virgin was with child her present status is no longer a virgin.

      On the other hand in the LXX I noticed Isaiah 62:5 uses bethulah for virgin but here also parthenos is used but in the dative case.

      So if I have any of the above right, can some one shed some more light on what did the writers of the LXX believe the word parthenos to be for as it stands now I’m of the impression that idea behind parthenos can come out of both Almah and bethulah.

      MS
    • M.Kraus
      Check the excellent article by Adam Kamesar that appeared in the Journal of Theological Studies a few years ago that discusses Isa. 7:14 and the history of its
      Message 2 of 2 , Sep 6, 2000
      • 0 Attachment
        Check the excellent article by Adam Kamesar that appeared in the
        Journal of Theological Studies a few years ago that discusses Isa. 7:14
        and the history of its interpretation.

        >What did the 3rd century Jewish writers really have in mind when they
        >translated from Hebrew to the Greek 2nd declension feminine noun parthenos
        >in the LXX. I have come across great conflict in discussion over the whole
        >idea of “virgin”. Some Orthodox sides say Almah Ayin, lamed, mem, he means
        >only young woman, maiden, damsel. If one was to convey the true meaning of
        >a virgin as in “without sexual interaction” the word bethulah for virgin
        >spelled bet, taw, waw, lamed, he would have been used in the Hebrew text.
        >So I’m told. What I get from it all is the accusation that the word almah
        >is mistranslated in order to support a theological doctrine as toward
        >divine conception. As i'm told, it is easier for an unmarried young woman
        >to be with child than for a virgin. If a virgin was with child her present
        >status is no longer a virgin. On the other hand in the LXX I noticed
        >Isaiah 62:5 uses bethulah for virgin but here also parthenos is used but
        >in the dative case. So if I have any of the above right, can some one
        >shed some more light on what did the writers of the LXX believe the word
        >parthenos to be for as it stands now I’m of the impression that idea
        >behind parthenos can come out of both Almah and bethulah. MS


        Matthew Kraus
        Assistant Professor of Classics and Jewish Studies
        Stetson Hall
        Williams College
        Williamstown, MA 01267
        (413)597-2465
        Fax (413)597-4305
      Your message has been successfully submitted and would be delivered to recipients shortly.